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Ruling question

#1 User is offline   zzmiy 

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Posted 2008-November-24, 05:03

Scoring: MP

Bidding goes as follows:
1(South) - 3(Alerted) - 3 (not asking about the meaning of alerted bid)- pass
3NT - all pass
3NT was bid after E explained partner's 3 as preempt in hearts.
W appeared to have natural s :huh: and defence cashed 7 tricks for down 3.
EW use transfer preempts openings, but there's nothing in CC about whether they play them in this situation.

Any work for TD here? :rolleyes:
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#2 User is offline   hrothgar 

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Posted 2008-November-24, 05:16

East-West get to keep their 3N - 3
North - South get a proceedural penalty for failing to complete their CC adequately
Alderaan delenda est
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#3 User is offline   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2008-November-24, 06:20

hrothgar, on Nov 24 2008, 06:16 AM, said:

East-West get to keep their 3N - 3
North - South get a proceedural penalty for failing to complete their CC adequately

Agree, although I guess you want to give EW the
procedural penalty.

If you dont ask for an explanantion you have to live
with the result

With kind regards
Marlowe

PS: I am pretty sure, that North intended to bid 4H
over 3NT, why did he not do this?
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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#4 User is offline   kgr 

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Posted 2008-November-24, 06:31

P_Marlowe, on Nov 24 2008, 02:20 PM, said:

hrothgar, on Nov 24 2008, 06:16 AM, said:

East-West get to keep their 3N - 3
North - South get a proceedural penalty for failing to complete their CC adequately

Agree, although I guess you want to give EW the
procedural penalty.

If you dont ask for an explanantion you have to live
with the result

With kind regards
Marlowe

PS: I am pretty sure, that North intended to bid 4H
over 3NT, why did he not do this?

- 3NT was bid after E explained partner's 3 as preempt in hearts. Therefor Souths 3NT makes sense and North Pass also. I would correct to the best result for NS that seems likely with correct explanation and same result for EW (without additional penalty).
- Who says that the CC is not correctly filled. Maybe EW don't play transfer preempts when overcalling and only the explanation was wrong.
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#5 User is offline   RMB1 

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Posted 2008-November-24, 07:49

There is insufficient evidence that EW play 3 as a transfer overcall.
So I rule (Law 75) that EW agreement was 3 was natural.
So South was misinformed and would not have bid 3NT with the correct information.
What South would have bid is a harder question and I would ask some players:
4 and 4 are possible, 4 would be interesting if it was choice-of-games.

I would adjust to some weighting of some of 4, 4, 5 making however many tricks.
If I can not give weighted scores, I award the most favourable of those results.

Robin
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#6 User is offline   FrancesHinden 

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Posted 2008-November-24, 08:02

5C on a trump lead or trump switch is cute, as you should duck the first round of trumps.
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#7 User is offline   kgr 

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Posted 2008-November-24, 08:05

RMB1, on Nov 24 2008, 03:49 PM, said:

....
What South would have bid is a harder question and I would ask some players:
4 and 4 are possible, 4 would be interesting if it was choice-of-games.

Agree

Quote

I would adjust to some weighting of some of 4, 4, 5 making however many tricks. 
If I can not give weighted scores, I award the most favourable of those results.

Am I allowed to rule that NS get the best likely result? If you give a weighted score then the probability that NS get less then they would get without the Mis-information if 50%. And the probability that EW get more then they would get without the Mis-information if 50%.
If prefer to be at the save side for the non-offending pair and always give the most favourable iso weighted score.
In this case I would rule 6= for NS (maybe I should give 6+1).
(If 6 can not be made then I rule 4+?)
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#8 User is offline   hrothgar 

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Posted 2008-November-24, 08:28

[quote name='kgr' date='Nov 24 2008, 03:31 PM'] Agree, although I guess you want to give EW the
procedural penalty.

If you dont ask for an explanantion you have to live
with the result

With kind regards
Marlowe

PS: I am pretty sure, that North intended to bid 4H
over 3NT, why did he not do this? [/QUOTE]
- 3NT was bid after E explained partner's 3[di] as preempt in hearts. Therefor Souths 3NT makes sense and North Pass also. I would correct to the best result for NS that seems likely with correct explanation and same result for EW (without additional penalty).
- Who says that the CC is not correctly filled. Maybe EW don't play transfer preempts when overcalling and only the explanation was wrong. [/quote]
Sorry

My mistake. I read the problem much too quickly...

I decline judgement until I get more information about what precisely took place at the table
Alderaan delenda est
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#9 User is offline   cherdano 

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Posted 2008-November-24, 12:51

zzmiy, on Nov 24 2008, 05:03 AM, said:

Any work for TD here? ;)

Yes. Try to find out EW's actual agreements.
Most likely he will conclude misinformation.
The easiest way to count losers is to line up the people who talk about loser count, and count them. -Kieran Dyke
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#10 User is offline   ggwhiz 

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Posted 2008-November-24, 16:01

I expect the explanation was wrong as I don't know of anyone who plays transfer pre-empts as an overcall. An honest attempt at disclosure but WRONG. And it did damage the opponents.

Too many possibilities for me to divine a result so I would award N/S the better of

1. Average plus
2. Percentage of the rest of their hands

and E/W an average minus.
When a deaf person goes to court is it still called a hearing?
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#11 User is offline   jdonn 

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Posted 2008-November-24, 16:04

ggwhiz, on Nov 24 2008, 05:01 PM, said:

I expect the explanation was wrong as I don't know of anyone who plays transfer pre-empts as an overcall. An honest attempt at disclosure but WRONG. And it did damage the opponents.

Too many possibilities for me to divine a result so I would award N/S the better of

1. Average plus
2. Percentage of the rest of their hands

and E/W an average minus.

That's very lazy directing, it's your job to 'divine' a result. It's simply wrong to award an artificial score when a bridge result can reasonably be assigned. How fair is it to NS if their actual score might have been higher than avg+?

By the way, I'm pretty sure avg+ on a board is automatically your score for the game if that would be higher?
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#12 User is offline   blackshoe 

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Posted 2008-November-24, 16:12

jdonn, on Nov 24 2008, 06:04 PM, said:

By the way, I'm pretty sure avg+ on a board is automatically your score for the game if that would be higher?

Essentially, yes. Law 12C2©.
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#13 User is offline   jdonn 

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Posted 2008-November-24, 16:17

blackshoe, on Nov 24 2008, 05:12 PM, said:

jdonn, on Nov 24 2008, 06:04 PM, said:

By the way, I'm pretty sure avg+ on a board is automatically your score for the game if that would be higher?

Essentially, yes. Law 12C2©.

Yup good call.

Wow 12 - C - 2 - c, too many subheadings!
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#14 User is offline   ggwhiz 

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Posted 2008-November-24, 17:50

I don't consider it lazy directing when there are too many possible outcomes. 4 spades? 4 hearts? 5 clubs? Who would bid what, when? A 3 spade bid followed by 4 hearts doesn't garauntee 5-cards in hearts does it?

As soon as the non-offending side has to make a couple or three bids to get to their max. spot, it gets muddy.

NABC casebooks are full of hands where the committee decides they simply can't decide what would occur in a complicated situation.

Also, you might be right about avg+ = percentage on other boards but I'm not sure.
When a deaf person goes to court is it still called a hearing?
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#15 User is offline   jdonn 

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Posted 2008-November-24, 18:25

ggwhiz, on Nov 24 2008, 06:50 PM, said:

I don't consider it lazy directing when there are too many possible outcomes.

With all due respect, there just aren't in this case.

Quote

4 spades?  4 hearts?  5 clubs?  Who would bid what, when?  A 3 spade bid followed by 4 hearts doesn't garauntee 5-cards in hearts does it?

4? 5?? Where are you getting these contracts from. Every game contract in a long suit held by either player is not an outcome you need to consider. Just look at what contract would have gotten them the best result (4 or 6 in this case, depending on the breaks), and if there is a reasonably likely auction to get them there (easy for either contract) then that's the contract. It's easy. You are confusing yourself by taking a needlessly long train of thought to contracts you don't have to consider.

Quote

As soon as the non-offending side has to make a couple or three bids to get to their max. spot, it gets muddy.

That's what you are there for!

Quote

NABC casebooks are full of hands where the committee decides they simply can't decide what would occur in a complicated situation.

That's a very small percentage of the total cases, and in the instances when a bridge result could have been assigned then those decisions have tended to be lambasted and very poorly rated by the casebook commentators.

Quote

Also, you might be right about avg+ = percentage on other boards but I'm not sure.

Might be right? Blackshoe kindly referred you to the exact law!
Please let me know about any questions or interest or bug reports about GIB.
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#16 User is offline   zzmiy 

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Posted 2008-November-25, 08:21

Thanks all for your opinions.
Actual ruling at the table was adjusting board to 60/40.
Most of the field was in 6 making, though I'm not sure if we'd have managed to bid it (I was S on this deal) B)

2hrothgar what additional info do you need?
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#17 User is offline   Codo 

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Posted 2008-November-25, 10:09

I really hate this ruling. :)
60/40 is given when there is no possibility to create a real score. F.e. Unplayable boards with one side guilty.
This is not the case here, so it was a lazy call.
The score should have been 6 Heart making.
Kind Regards

Roland


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More system is not the answer...
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#18 User is offline   JoAnneM 

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Posted 2008-November-25, 10:46

There is a good reason to hate this ruling - it is illegal. Just as ACBL doesn't give split scores for hands played it doesn't give avg+/avg-, it gives actual adjustments. Avg+/Avg- is for hands not played or fouled boards.

Someone correct me if I am wrong.
Regards, Jo Anne
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#19 User is offline   keylime 

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Posted 2008-November-25, 11:57

I think this should be a weighted ruling of percentages, i.e. the three part kind.
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#20 User is offline   skjaeran 

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Posted 2008-November-25, 13:04

In ACBL I guess you'd rule 6 for both sides.

Elsewhere you'd probably rule a weighted score 6=/4+2. Something like 75% weight for slam.

JoAnne is absolutely correct about avg+/- being an illegal ruling.
Kind regards,
Harald
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