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quick, simple question

#1 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2008-November-12, 14:02

KQ943
A73
63
JT5

1-1
2

Partner could have 45, followups are vanilla standard.
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#2 User is offline   TylerE 

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Posted 2008-November-12, 14:15

2. Don't have enough for 4SF, and I'd like a better heart holding (and in context, I'd consider KJx better) for 2NT.
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#3 User is offline   Lobowolf 

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Posted 2008-November-12, 14:26

I don't like 2. Partner's advertising an unbalanced hand, and the short suit is probably spades; I'd expect a 3-card raise on a 3-1-4-5 or 3-1-5-4 hand. I agree with your comments respect to 2NT, but it'd still be my second choice. Instead, though, I'll take the false preference to 2; on a good day, partner has longer diamonds or the strength to take a third bid. If we're in a crummy fit, at least I have extra values to compensate.
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IV: ace 333: pot should be game, idk

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#4 User is online   mike777 

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Posted 2008-November-12, 14:32

gwnn, on Nov 12 2008, 03:02 PM, said:

KQ943
A73
63
JT5

1-1
2

Partner could have 45, followups are vanilla standard.

2d, very common auction.
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#5 User is offline   TimG 

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Posted 2008-November-12, 14:32

gwnn, on Nov 12 2008, 03:02 PM, said:

Partner could have 45, followups are vanilla standard.

I think this is something of a red herring; you shouldn't really base your actions on the possibility that partner has done something a little unusual. If partner opened 1 with 45 in the minors, it was because he thought he could handle the auction.
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#6 User is offline   Lobowolf 

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Posted 2008-November-12, 14:42

TimG, on Nov 12 2008, 03:32 PM, said:

gwnn, on Nov 12 2008, 03:02 PM, said:

Partner could have 45, followups are vanilla standard.

I think this is something of a red herring; you shouldn't really base your actions on the possibility that partner has done something a little unusual. If partner opened 1 with 45 in the minors, it was because he thought he could handle the auction.

Or because he thought he couldn't handle the auction if he started with 1. If partner has a minimum hand, the false preference might very well get you to a 4-2 fit when you have a 5-3 club fit available. On balance, though, I think 2 solves more problems than it creates. Add the jack of hearts, though, and I'm bidding 2NT.
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C. It's the nexus of the crisis and the origin of storms.

IV: ace 333: pot should be game, idk

e: "Maybe God remembered how cute you were as a carrot."
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#7 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2008-November-12, 14:51

I hate these hands, maybe I can buy time by asking for the form of scoring?
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

- hrothgar
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#8 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2008-November-12, 14:54

Imps, i don't remember the vulnerability.

I don't think mentioning that she could have 45 is a red herring. Imagine that you know for a fact that she opens 1 about twice as often as a North American. If you don't think this is relevant (for example you say that only happens 1% of the time, so she does it 2% of the time and you don't think that's often enough to matter), you can just ignore the comment. I don't think if I post a hand and it is obviously right to do something no matter what vulnerability and I give the vulnerability, that will be a red herring.
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#9 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2008-November-12, 15:04

I agree it is relevant to the situation and it certainly can't hurt.

It's a slight overbid but I'm going for 2NT.
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

- hrothgar
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#10 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2008-November-12, 15:06

Agree with Mike777 and Lobowolf.
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#11 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2008-November-12, 15:15

I'll go with a simple 2. Pard, with 15+, will make one final effort in 2NT or 2, to which I'll oblige.

If I feel lucky, I'll try 2NT (pard is encouraged to support spades with 3, on the way to 3NT) or a FSF if it's just forcing for 1 round.
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#12 User is offline   ASkolnick 

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Posted 2008-November-12, 15:38

I'll bid 2 which is a transfer to spades showing a 5th spade and invitational values. I am setting up for this auction well. If partner does not bid 2S, I can either play in the appropriate 3 level.
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#13 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2008-November-12, 15:40

Quote

I'll bid 2♥ which is a transfer to spades showing a 5th spade and invitational values.
No it's not.
... and I can prove it with my usual, flawless logic.
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#14 User is offline   rogerclee 

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Posted 2008-November-12, 15:42

I would bid 2, don't hate 2N.
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#15 User is offline   awm 

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Posted 2008-November-12, 17:52

I think this is one of the many substantial losses for the style of opening 1 and rebidding 2 with 4-5 in the minors. The "textbook" bid seems to be 2, which is fine if you can assume that partner has 5+ virtually all the time (okay 1444 maybe). But if this sequence is normal with shapes like 1345, 2245 then the odds of playing a 4-2 fit go up substantially.

I don't like playing 4-2 fits so I will make the slight overbid of 2NT. I'll note that if I was playing a strong club (in which case partner had to bid 1...2 with 4-5 in the minors) then I would pass 2, highly unlikely to miss a game because we have at most 15+10=25 high and no fit.
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#16 User is offline   Codo 

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Posted 2008-November-13, 02:11

gwnn, on Nov 13 2008, 06:40 AM, said:

Quote

I'll bid 2♥ which is a transfer to spades showing a 5th spade and invitational values.
No it's not.

I bid 2 showing exactly 5323 with 9 HCPS, include some High Cards in the majors WTP?

If I lack this mandatory agreement, I go with the slightly overbid of 2 NT. I always play better then any of my partners... They never agree on this fact, but what do they know.
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#17 User is offline   1eyedjack 

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Posted 2008-November-13, 02:43

With a full-blown 2N bid I always bid 3N anyway, so it might be playable for 2N to show a point lighter than classical.
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#18 User is offline   ASkolnick 

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Posted 2008-November-13, 08:44

Gwnn, for me and my partner it is since I have that agreement with partner. It works well since it gives you both the invitational and the forcing hands together. But if it was what people normally play.

I also play 1D,1X,2C as forcing as well, but with this hand it would not matter.
However, I think you should bid 2D since if partner can't make another call. you don't have game.
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#19 User is offline   FrancesHinden 

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Posted 2008-November-13, 08:59

If I am playing FSF as a one-round force I would bid 2H and pass a minimum rebid by opener.

If I play that partner can't be 45 in the minors, I would bid 2D.

Assuming that FSF is game forcing, and that partner opens 1D with all 1345 hands, I bid 2NT. Let's hope we play sound opening bids.
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#20 User is offline   kenrexford 

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Posted 2008-November-13, 09:09

This is an auction that advertises for a convention I used to play (and liked a lot), where a 2 opening showed 9+ in the minors (no 4-card majors) and about 14-16 HCP (intermediate). That convention would allow me to comfortably pass 2 in this sequence.

Without that bid, I make an unfortunate courtesy correction of 2 and live with it.
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