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Weak or intermediate passed partner

#1 User is offline   kgr 

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Posted 2008-November-10, 08:12

We play:
1♥-(2♣) : 2♣=5+c♣ and 4c♠
1♥-(3♣) : 6c♣ and intermediate strength (10-16)
Because we don't have a natural 2♣ overcall we need the jump to 3♣ to be intermediate and not weak. The above is an example as we also have other 2 suit overcalls.
Given the above:
(Pass)-1♥-(3♣): Would you still play 3♣ intermediate here or do you think it is more usefull to have it preemptive if partner passed and have not bid for a good hand with only ♣.
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#2 User is offline   kenrexford 

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Posted 2008-November-10, 08:15

Partner as a passed hand would tend, IMO, to suggest intermediate more than if partner was not a passed hand. Why? Because I'll have an intermediate hand more often than otherwise, I think.
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#3 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2008-November-10, 08:18

Agree with our best theorist.
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#4 User is offline   kgr 

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Posted 2008-November-10, 08:34

kenrexford, on Nov 10 2008, 04:15 PM, said:

Partner as a passed hand would tend, IMO, to suggest intermediate more than if partner was not a passed hand. Why? Because I'll have an intermediate hand more often than otherwise, I think.

Makes sense.
...But because partner is a passed hand we can bid a lot of intermediates as weak because game will be very unlikely on a lot of these hands. Maybe that makes weak a better agreement with a passed partner?
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#5 User is offline   kenrexford 

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Posted 2008-November-10, 09:51

kgr, on Nov 10 2008, 09:34 AM, said:

kenrexford, on Nov 10 2008, 04:15 PM, said:

Partner as a passed hand would tend, IMO, to suggest intermediate more than if partner was not a passed hand.  Why?  Because I'll have an intermediate hand more often than otherwise, I think.

Makes sense.
...But because partner is a passed hand we can bid a lot of intermediates as weak because game will be very unlikely on a lot of these hands. Maybe that makes weak a better agreement with a passed partner?

The best answer is an example.
If the range is 10-16 (not sure I like that range), let's assume an average intermediate hand:

♠xx ♥Qxx ♦Ax ♣AQJxxx

What does partner need for game?

If he has the club King, where we do not rely on a club finesse, we can see seven tricks already. Add in the diamond King and spade Ace, and nine tricks are there. So, it looks like Responder can have a fairly assured 3NT contract when he has a 10-count. If the finesse is OK with Advancer, then a 7-count works.

This idea suggests that the "range" should be less a matter of high card points, or even distributional strength, but more a matter of "notrump amenability."
"Gibberish in, gibberish out. A trial judge, three sets of lawyers, and now three appellate judges cannot agree on what this law means. And we ask police officers, prosecutors, defense lawyers, and citizens to enforce or abide by it? The legislature continues to write unreadable statutes. Gibberish should not be enforced as law."

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#6 User is online   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2008-November-10, 10:40

Well, I would say, 3C is still intermediate, but
partner is allowed to play games.

So in effect, I am saying, partner wants to bid 3C
for what ever tactical reason, and expects action
only, if I have a fit.

This means basically, you give up bidding game in
this seq., but facing a passed partner, an opponent,
who opened, I say, it will be seldom, and partner is
allowed to bid 3NT with club honors.

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Marlowe
With kind regards
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#7 User is offline   H_KARLUK 

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Posted 2008-November-10, 12:24

I liked Kenrexford's words :

"What does partner need for game?"

Questionable and reasonable.
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