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Forcing or not... competitive bidding situation

#1 User is offline   vanyvon 

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Posted 2008-November-12, 07:58

Hi all, i have a doubt and would appreciate your feedback. In the following example where the opener reverses, the opponents compete, and responder rebids his initial suit at 3rd level, is the responder rebid clearly forcing or is it subject to a partnership agreement?
North East South West
1C Pass 1H 1S
2D 2S 3H

Thanks much
Yvon
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#2 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2008-November-12, 08:13

The reverse in competition may promise slightly less than a normal reverse but even so I think this should be forcing. You may play 2NT as a weak hand that wants to compete to either 3♣, 3♦ or 3♥.

Just my personal opinion, I don't know what is standard.
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#3 User is offline   Codo 

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Posted 2008-November-12, 08:34

I agree with helene, so this must be standard.

I Don't know if there is a standard, but it should be forcing, because you may pass or bid 2 NT (if discussed) with a weak hand.
Kind Regards

Roland

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More system is not the answer...
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