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Duplication Bournemouth Blues

#1 User is offline   nige1 

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Posted 2008-October-23, 07:05

Scoring: MP

Bournemouth Pairs Board 12
1N (_P) 2 (_P)
3 (_P) 3N (_P)
4 (_P) 4 AP
1N = 15-18
2 = Transfer
3 = 4+ Minimum strength.
4 = 1 of 5 Key cards.
LHO leads Q
4 presents no problem but suppose, instead, that you are declarer in 6

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#2 User is offline   vuroth 

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Posted 2008-October-23, 07:37

The only thing I can think of on the play is to hope that whoever has the ace of spades also only has 2 clubs (5332 around the table). Clear out the reds, AK, concede a and pray (Ok, I was probably praying while playing the red suits too.... :) ).

I'm actually more curious about the bidding. Is 4 just a courtesy bid? Partner can't show the A, and has already limited his hand with 1NT, so isn't going to bid anything other than 4, is he? So bidding 4 as a slam try makes no sense to me, unless you're planning on bidding over 4.

That kind of sounds like a criticism, but it's not - it's intended to be a question. If someone could explain the bid, and why it's correct, I'd really appreciate it.

V
Still decidedly intermediate - don't take my guesses as authoritative.

"gwnn" said:

rule number 1 in efficient forum reading:
hanp does not always mean literally what he writes.
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#3 User is offline   Codo 

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Posted 2008-October-23, 07:39

I think 6 Spade is very easy:

Win the club, take your red tricks and play a second high club. Now play a spade. You hope that soemone wins the ace and has no black card left. This line should be around 5 % ( I did not calculate), but it is the only line I see.

You may calculate if the risk of this line (compared to a mere 1 down when you draw trumps) is worth the risk at mps. I guess it is.
Kind Regards

Roland


Sanity Check: Failure (Fluffy)
More system is not the answer...
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#4 User is offline   FrancesHinden 

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Posted 2008-October-23, 07:45

From the explanation of the 4D bid, it appears that 3NT was a key-card ask.
There are various criticisms one could make of the auction (e.g. if the DQ were the CQ slam would be basically cold but West has the same number of keycards; if instead of the DKQ West had the SA and DJ then he would have more keycards but slam would be very poor etc etc)
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#5 User is offline   vuroth 

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Posted 2008-October-23, 07:47

FrancesHinden, on Oct 23 2008, 08:45 AM, said:

From the explanation of the 4D bid, it appears that 3NT was a key-card ask.

:huh: Oops missed that part of the explanation. Sorry.
Still decidedly intermediate - don't take my guesses as authoritative.

"gwnn" said:

rule number 1 in efficient forum reading:
hanp does not always mean literally what he writes.
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#6 User is offline   Codo 

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Posted 2008-October-23, 08:10

I would praise the pair for reaching 6 Spade. This is a great contract- besides that it does not make. But when the 1 NT opening bidder had any additional small red card for an small black one or if he had the queen of clubs instead of the queen of Diamond Slam is cold.
The queen of Clubs instead the King of HEarts make slam around 50 %.

Really, no Slam to be ashamed of. And I had not had the tools to avoid it.
Kind Regards

Roland


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#7 User is offline   nige1 

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Posted 2008-October-23, 10:34

Our bidding was unenterprising :huh: But we had a double stroke of luck ;)
  • Severe duplication makes the otherwise excellent slam against the odds.
  • An opponent holds doubleton A. Hence, unless he ducks the 1st round of trumps, the elimination fails.

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#8 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2008-October-23, 10:42

15-18? Seriously?

I think that playing a low spade from hand first might give you a better chance than the legitimate line.
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

- hrothgar
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