dburn, on Oct 17 2008, 09:38 PM, said:
I too was under the impression that 3♦ had been doubled by third hand, not by opener after partner had passed it.
But in the latter case, it is in my view even more serious to remove 3♦ doubled to 3♥. Again, suppose that your LHO had asked what 3♦ meant, and your partner had said "It shows both majors" before passing. Would it occur to you to remove 3♦ in front of partner? After all, for a hand with eleven cards in the majors, you have a pretty good hand for diamonds if that is where partner, knowing you have the majors, wants to play.
It is all very well to say "Partner did not open the bidding, so he can't want to play in diamonds facing this hand, so he must have misremembered or misunderstood 3♦." Again, if you can show incontrovertible evidence that partner would always open the bidding with any hand that wants to play in diamonds facing this, well and good. In that case and that case only, there is no "logical alternative" to 3♥ - you are allowed to infer that partner doesn't know what you're doing if the legal calls and your partnership methods alone admit no other inference.
But you may not - nay, must not - be guided in any way by an alert, or non-alert, or question, or reply to a question, or anything else, as to your partner's actual state of mind. You bid 3♦ intending, or hoping at any rate, to show the majors. You must assume that partner knows that it showed the majors, and you must act accordingly when he passes it.
Apologies if I appear, in stressing this point, to be criticising your behaviour in terms of ethics. That is not my intention in the least - I am sure that you were acting from the best of motives and without any nefarious intent. Moreover, your own comments indicate that you do have some grasp of the issues; if a director had adjusted the score to 3♦ doubled minus lots, you would have had no complaint.
But some of the things that have been said here seem to me to indicate that the legal principle involved is not widely understood, and I am anxious that it should be. That principle I can best state in words I used some time ago:
"When you have unauthorised information, you are no longer allowed to be brilliant."
So it doesn't matter that I know that we have no agreements covering this auction, and that there is a high likelihood that partner doesn't know what I'm doing? I'm just curious.
I thought I might be within my rights, as I had made a plan ahead of time that took into account that 3 diamonds would not likely end the auction, and that partner, who might misunderstand my initial action, would be able to interpret it in context of my later action, but I wasn't 100% sure, so I'm glad you took the time to post such a thorough response.
Edit: Also, gratitude to those who point out that it may not be best, and is in no way assumed undiscussed, to have the same defense to 2N as to 1N.
P-(2N)-3♦-(p),
P-(X)-3♥-(p),
3♠-All Pass