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Minors over opener's major what do you bid?

#1 User is offline   jdaming 

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Posted 2008-September-25, 10:39



Partner opens 1 what do you respond playing 2/1

Partner bids 2 over a forcing 1NT
All IMO. Junior wanting to soak up all the knowledge he can.
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#2 User is offline   ArtK78 

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Posted 2008-September-25, 10:49

I bid a forcing 1NT in response to my partner's 1 opening.

If I am playing a nonforcing 1NT, I bid that. The club suit is not good enough for 2 followed by 3 if you play that as nonforcing, and it goes without saying that the hand is not good enough for a 2/1 if that is forcing to game.

When partner rebids 2 over my forcing or nonforcing 1NT response, I pass.
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#3 User is offline   Lobowolf 

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Posted 2008-September-25, 11:15

1NT; then P.
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#4 User is offline   SlickRicky 

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Posted 2008-September-25, 17:07

Hi,

1N and then pass seems clear enough. Sure clubs could play better, but why gamble over 2H when you have at least 7 of them and possibly 8, and no sure fit in clubs which you will have to play one level higher.

Ricky
Jumping under stars inspires nobody
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#5 User is offline   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2008-September-26, 00:52

1NT followed by Pass.

With kind regards
Marlowe
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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#6 User is offline   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2008-September-26, 00:53

SlickRicky, on Sep 25 2008, 06:07 PM, said:

Hi,

1N and then pass seems clear enough. Sure clubs could play better, but why gamble over 2H when you have at least 7 of them and possibly 8, and no sure fit in clubs which you will have to play one level higher.

Ricky

Of course this assumes that 2H promises a 6 carder,
which it may or may not.

With kind regards
Marlowe
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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#7 User is offline   dicklont 

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Posted 2008-September-26, 02:02

1NT and pass.
P must have a 6-card else he would have bid 2/ (2 would be reverse).
Generally: when confronted with a misfit get out as soon as you can.
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Finding your own mistakes is more productive than looking for partner's. It improves your game and is good for your soul. (Nige1)
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#8 User is offline   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2008-September-26, 02:25

dicklont, on Sep 26 2008, 03:02 AM, said:

1NT and pass.
P must have a 6-card else he would have bid 2/ (2 would be reverse).
Generally: when confronted with a misfit get out as soon as you can.

What would he bid with 5-4 in the majors below reverse
strength?

Ok, if you happen to have the reasonable agreement,
that a 2C bid could be made on 2 cards only, than 2H
will promise 6 cards, but if not, and I am sure that the
mentioned agreement is not standard, 2H may just be a
5 carder.

Or do you play Flannery? Playing this, 5-4 is not possible,
hence the 2H bid would be a 6 carder.

Of course this does not change the decision to pass 2H,
because it is quite likely that partner happens to have 6,
and there is no assurance that a level on the 3 level will
be better.

With kind regards
Marlowe
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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#9 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2008-September-26, 02:29

P_Marlowe, on Sep 26 2008, 10:25 AM, said:

Ok, if you happen to have the reasonable agreement,
that a 2C bid could be made on 2 cards only, than 2H
will promise 6 cards, but if not, and I am sure that the
mentioned agreement is not standard
, 2H may just be a
5 carder.

It's not standard, it's more like universal!
... and I can prove it with my usual, flawless logic.
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#10 User is offline   fromageGB 

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Posted 2008-September-26, 09:05

gwnn, on Sep 26 2008, 09:29 AM, said:

It's not standard, it's more like universal!

Maybe not 2 cards, but I would agree with 3. Surely everyone must play either 2 shows a club suit or is balanced, or better minor with balanced hand. Therefore 2 must be 6.
So, as everyone says, pass.

I actually bid 1 with this hand, Kaplan inversion 0 to 4 spades, and then pass the 2 rebid.
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#11 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2008-September-26, 09:21

Gwnn of course referred to the 2H bid showing 6 that is universal, and rightly so.
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

- hrothgar
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#12 User is offline   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2008-September-26, 10:43

fromageGB, on Sep 26 2008, 10:05 AM, said:

gwnn, on Sep 26 2008, 09:29 AM, said:

It's not standard, it's more like universal!

Maybe not 2 cards, but I would agree with 3. Surely everyone must play either 2 shows a club suit or is balanced, or better minor with balanced hand. Therefore 2 must be 6.
So, as everyone says, pass.

I actually bid 1 with this hand, Kaplan inversion 0 to 4 spades, and then pass the 2 rebid.

2H can only show 6 cards, if a hand with 4 spades,
5 hearts, 2 diamonds, 2 clubs and below reverse
strength has a bid different bid available than 2H.
Unless my definition for balanced is different than
yours, this hand has to find a bid.

You may choose between Pass, 2C or 2D.
If you choose 2C, than 2C could be based on 2 cards
and a semi balanced hand.
And a semi balanced hand, is not a balanced hand, and
if you happen to alert the bid, you hopefully mention
semibalanced, else your explanation is simply wrong.

If you play that 2C / 2D always showes 3 cards, and
if you still requre that 2H showes 6 cards, than you play

#1 Flannery
#2 Kaplan Inversion or a derivate, missed that, I agree,
but to defend myself, Kaplan Inversion was not part of
the agreement set specified in the original post.

Now it may well be, that the majority of 2/1 players playes

2C could be 2 cards, some form of Kaplan Inversion or
Flannery, but my guess is, that there are 2/1 players
out there people, who dont, and I doubt that the size of the
group will be ignorable small.
It is up to you to claim, that no world clase player playes
a agreement set, without one of the above agreements.

But one thing should be clear, you need conv. agreements
so that 2H will always show 6 cards.
And you may of course assume that you have one of those
agreements in place.

With kind regards
Marlowe
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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#13 User is offline   pclayton 

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Posted 2008-September-26, 10:56

2 promises six. End of discussion. This isn't up for debate.

I pass 2.
"Phil" on BBO
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#14 User is offline   skjaeran 

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Posted 2008-September-26, 11:41

P_Marlowe, on Sep 26 2008, 06:43 PM, said:

fromageGB, on Sep 26 2008, 10:05 AM, said:

gwnn, on Sep 26 2008, 09:29 AM, said:

It's not standard, it's more like universal!

Maybe not 2 cards, but I would agree with 3. Surely everyone must play either 2 shows a club suit or is balanced, or better minor with balanced hand. Therefore 2 must be 6.
So, as everyone says, pass.

I actually bid 1 with this hand, Kaplan inversion 0 to 4 spades, and then pass the 2 rebid.

2H can only show 6 cards, if a hand with 4 spades,
5 hearts, 2 diamonds, 2 clubs and below reverse
strength has a bid different bid available than 2H.
Unless my definition for balanced is different than
yours, this hand has to find a bid.

Playing 2/1 with a forcing 1NT, it's standard to rebid 2 over 1NT with 4522 and below reverse strength.

Playing a non-forcing NT (I do), you pass 1NT with such a hand.

Rebidding 2 does show a 6-bagger.
Kind regards,
Harald
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