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Transfers over 2NT rebid

#1 User is offline   MickyB 

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Posted 2008-July-24, 11:18

Just been thinking about this, seems better than Wolff and similar, and possibly simpler - anyone know of any existing write-ups or have their own preferred version?
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#2 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2008-July-24, 11:31

These are the agreements that I usually foist upon new partners:

Applies only to a 2NT rebid that shows 18-19 (ie either a jump or bid voluntarily over a sandwich intervention). [I've also agreed "Applies after any second-round non-forcing 2NT rebid by opener after responder has shown values."]

Any suit is a transfer. 3S shows clubs.

Transfer back to opener’s suit may be a signoff.

Opener gives preference only after 1m-1S; 2NT-3D – in all other auctions responder might have only four cards in his first suit.

Opener rarely breaks through strength.

Transfer then new/old suit = patterning out, may be looking for best game. eg 1D–1S; 2NT-3C; 3D-3H = 5431
Exception: 1H-1S; 2NT-3D; 3H-4C might be either shape or a cue bid, because there is no room to agree hearts below game.

Transfer to an old suit and then raise to game(eg 1m-1S; 2NT-3H; 3S-4S) = NF slam try.

Jump in new suit = autosplinter
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#3 User is offline   MickyB 

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Posted 2008-July-24, 13:41

gnasher, on Jul 24 2008, 06:31 PM, said:

Transfer then new/old suit = patterning out, may be looking for best game.  eg 1D–1S; 2NT-3C; 3D-3H = 5431

Is this 5341 or 4351? I presume the former, but the latter is still possible. Also, what about 1m:1H, 2N:3H? I guess this is at least 4-4, with 3S now denying 4S and promising 3H?

Am wondering if it's better to use 3C as a puppet to 3D - feels wrong to give so much ability to show hands with diamonds but not be able to indicate a heart shortage on a 4144 or a 4135.

This post has been edited by MickyB: 2008-July-24, 18:47

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#4 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2008-July-25, 01:45

MickyB, on Jul 24 2008, 08:41 PM, said:

gnasher, on Jul 24 2008, 06:31 PM, said:

1D–1S; 2NT-3C; 3D-3H = 5431

Is this 5341 or 4351? I presume the former, but the latter is still possible.

I think opener would assume 5341, but you're right that 4351 is possible. Thanks for pointing out the typo, which must have been there for quite some time.

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Also, what about 1m:1H, 2N:3H? I guess this is at least 4-4, with 3S now denying 4S and promising 3H?

Yes, it's 4-4. I usually play that you complete with 4-card support and bid 3NT without, but I agree that other approaches may be more efficient. The same would apply to 1♣-1♦; 2NT-3♦/♥.

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Am wondering if it's better to use 3C as a puppet to 3D - feels wrong to give so much ability to show hands with diamonds but not be able to indicate a heart shortage on a 4144 or a 4135.

Possibly. Personally I'm less interested in 4-3 fits than in 5-2 fits, so I prefer to be able to show 5M-4m hands. Given that, maybe I should play:
  3♣ then 3♥ = 5 major + 4 clubs
  3♣ then 3♠ = 5 major + 4 diamonds
but for me that's a complication too far.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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