[ArtK78]

This hand is quite interesting.

Personally, I think that North was too strong to merely bid 4♥ after his partner's cue bid. I think his hand is worth a 3♠ call. South is an unpassed hand, and is unlimited. He could certainly have enough cards in the minor suits to produce a slam.

South can then bid 4♣ and North can sign off in 4♥. South should know that his side is missing the ♦A at this point, and that it might be dangerous to make another try. Even if South does bid 5♣ at this point, there is little chance that North will do anything more than 5♥ as South has not indicated any control of diamonds.

It is somewhat paradoxical that NS are less likely to get to slam (and possibly even avoid the 5 level) if North cue bids 3♠, a stronger action, rather than merely accepting the "game try" by jumping to 4♥.

Query: How can NS get to the good 6♥ contract if North had Qxxx of diamonds instead of Jxxx of diamonds?

[nige1]

nige1, on Jun 24 2008, 05:29 AM, said:

If West does have ♦A then he may well lead it.

xcurt, on Jun 24 2008, 11:12 AM, said:

You are north and have this auction to 6♥.  RHO leads the ♦A out of turn.  Do you accept?  Probably no and you bar a diamond lead.

Sufficient unto the day I get the mesage but you might, in fact, accept the lead you have four losing ♦ You're unlikely to be able to discard all of them Granny says:

Seriously consider accepting a lead out of turn: those who have completely lost the place are unlikely to find the best lead.

[oldman5757]

About 40% of the blame to South and 60% to North. Once North bid only game over partner's raise, South has little reason to go on. The fact that P didn't bid either 3♦ or 3♠ should convince S that game is enough. BTW, altho it is close whether N should bid 3♠, the 4 bad ♦ would convince me not to do so.

Once S bids 5♣, N should retreat to 5 ♥; N is still looking at two or more ♦ losers, with no promise of 1st or even 2nd round control. 5♥ could easily go down. Sounds to me like N was trying to catch up for not bidding more agressively earlier.

There is no "good" way to reach slam should N hold ♦ Qxxx instead of Jxxx. However, should N elect to bid 3♠ with that holding, S can now bid 4♣. When N retreats to 4♥, S can take one more push by bidding 5 ♣. Now, N may judge that S must have the ♦K, or perhaps a singleton, and bid the slam.

I said it wasn't a "good" way to bid it -- just a possible way.

[kenrexford]

ArtK78, on Jun 24 2008, 11:24 AM, said:

It is somewhat paradoxical that NS are less likely to get to slam (and possibly even avoid the 5 level) if North cue bids 3♠, a stronger action, rather than merely accepting the "game try" by jumping to 4♥.

Query: How can NS get to the good 6♥ contract if North had Qxxx of diamonds instead of Jxxx of diamonds?

I'm not sure if "paradoxical" is the right word. I'd suggest that it is somewhat retarded that this pair was more likely to get to slam (and commit to the 5 level) is North merely accepted the game try by jumping to 4♥. LOL

As to how to get to the slam if Overcaller had held ♠A ♥AKJxxx ♦Qxxx ♣(J/x)x. Responder holds ♠xxx ♠Qxxx ♦Kx ♣AKxx.

After 3♠ by Overcaller, a clear slam move, Responder has good cause to show serious slam interest and to bid 3NT. That does it.