Suppose you hold a hand with following characteristics:
- 2-4-5-2 distribution exactly
- poor 4 card ♥ (9xxx)
- good 5 card ♦ (KQJxx)
- enough values to bid 2♦ as F1
- EDIT: no GF values
What do you bid when the auction starts 1♠ - (2♣) - ???
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Dbl or Diamonds?
#1
Posted 2008-May-05, 05:13
"It may be rude to leave to go to the bathroom, but it's downright stupid to sit there and piss yourself" - blackshoe
#2
Posted 2008-May-05, 05:24
Doesn't it depend on whether I have game forcing values? Just like the choice between 2♣ and 1M if p opens 1♦ and we are not playing MAFIA.
The world would be such a happy place, if only everyone played Acol :) --- TramTicket
#3
Posted 2008-May-05, 05:29
X, Mayors rule.
Of course it helps, if you play a style,
where the X showes both suits.
Besides, sometimes you get to play 2Cx,
which is not possible after a 2D bid.
With kind regards
Marlowe
PS: I would even doubel with 5432 in hearts.
Of course it helps, if you play a style,
where the X showes both suits.
Besides, sometimes you get to play 2Cx,
which is not possible after a 2D bid.
With kind regards
Marlowe
PS: I would even doubel with 5432 in hearts.
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
#5
Posted 2008-May-05, 06:41
For those who wonder: you don't have GF values.
"It may be rude to leave to go to the bathroom, but it's downright stupid to sit there and piss yourself" - blackshoe
#8
Posted 2008-May-05, 10:34
Fluffy, on May 5 2008, 08:07 AM, said:
double if partner doesn't suck, 2♦ at indy.
Lol I really like this
[COLOR=blue] aka Dimitar
#9
Posted 2008-May-05, 15:05
Dbl...
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.
- hrothgar
- hrothgar
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