[kgr]

Scoring: MP

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MP's
1♣-1♠
1NT-??
You play T-Walsh and bid 1♠ transfer to ♦ or to NT (you often bid 1♠ if you think NT is better played from other hand).
I guess this is an obvious 3NT at IMP's (??), but how do you bid at MP's?

BTW: your other biding agreements over 1NT are :
2♣ asking. Partner will bid 2♦ with a minimum
2NT: transfer to ♦. partner will bid 3♣ if he invites a ♦ invite and 3♦ if he feels his hand is mimum if you happen to have a ♦ invite.

This post has been edited by kgr: 2008-April-30, 15:37

[ArtK78]

I don't think it is such an obvious 3NT call at any form of scoring.

How about bidding a natural and invitational 3♦? Or is that not allowed?

[pclayton]

3N? With two potentially open suits? Pard's 1N rebid can be made on many problem hands in this sequence, including 4414, (43)15 and the like.

I would invite in diamonds.

[kgr]

BTW: your other biding agreements are :
2♣ asking. Partner will bid 2♦ with a minimum
2NT: transfer to ♦. partner will bid 3♣ if he invites a ♦ invite and 3♦ if he feels his hand is mimum if you happen to have a ♦ invite.

[han]

I'd also invite in diamonds.

[the hog]

2NT

[P_Marlowe]

Hi,

2NT, why shoot, if you have the tools?

With kind regards
Marlowe

[Apollo81]

invite in diamonds regardless of conditions

[kgr]

I did bid 2♣ and passed partners 2♦ response which soon felt bad.
Partner had something like:
Kxx
Axxx
Ax
Qxxx