I have picked up these cards, in south:
Scoring: IMP
My partner, the dealer, opens 1S, and that’s the overall auction: 1S-2D; 2NT-4C; (double from my LHO opponent), 4D-4NT; 5D-7S. All pass.
About my auction: I assume that:
- Partner's 2NT shows an half-balanced hand (5-3-3-2, any doubleton), by from good 13 (with heads and concentrated honours), to 15 points.
- Partner’s 4D is the D king, and hasn’t the C ace (redouble, not 4D).
- My 4NT is an ugly auction: after the cue bid starting, 4NT hasn’t Blackwood meaning; however, without agreement, I hope it’s. Then, partner’s 5D is an ace, the hearts’ one.
RHO opponent leads by clubs, and these were the 26 cards:
Scoring: IMP
Because the C lead and the ruff, my partner must play the spades by heads, and takes the spades Qx over the finesse. An embarrassing good result (6S +1 in the other table). The day after, I have talked with the partner about his 2NT. He has explained:
“Playing 2/1 GF, as I do with my partner, 2S would show six spades cards”. After my objections, he has agreed with my opinions. Later, I have asked to a 2/1 GF expert, and he has replied:
“2NT, both in Sayc or 2/1 GF…2S only with six cards…Repeating the spades with five cards, you tell two times the same story”.
Here my opinions. In Sayc, 1Major…2Major doesn’t means “six or more cards”. It means: “minimum, for the moment”. 2NT, on the contrary, shows a good half-balanced hand. And that's a logic bidding, not a convention. Because:
- The replier could have 10-11 points (that’s the most frequent case of 2/1 reply). If the opener has 14 points (good 13 to 15), after 2NT the replier, with a tolerance for the opener’s suit (e.g. Jx), must bid 3NT. If the opener has 11-12 points, the replier must pass. How to differentiate the two cases?
- If the replier has three cards help, he doesn’t need of six in opener’s hand. If the replier has two cards help, also with a 6-2 fit the 3NT contract is often better.
A tail: I allow also 15 points for 2NT, not only 12-14; that’s another story.
Paolo.

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