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The level you prefer If you knew all cards

Poll: 6 or 7 ? (29 member(s) have cast votes)

6 or 7 ?

  1. 6NT (3 votes [10.34%])

    Percentage of vote: 10.34%

  2. 7NT (26 votes [89.66%])

    Percentage of vote: 89.66%

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#21 User is offline   dcvetkov 

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Posted 2008-April-22, 14:44

jdonn, on Apr 22 2008, 11:49 AM, said:

Why have cold sweats when the finesse is clearly percentage over the drop? You just finesse and pray :)

Is this really true? is it more likley then squeezing RHO? I know everyone is saying, yeah we make when queen is onside. But would you finesse at trick 11?
RHO can hold Qxx and J and is squeezed at trick 10, he has to come to doubleton heart.

I think you have to make some assumptions who has the last club (J), based on discards and table feel.
I agree its a pretty good 7, but trick 11,,,, grrr;)
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#22 User is offline   dcvetkov 

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Posted 2008-April-22, 14:54

Opps

Edit

Transportation is a problem. Big. I would like to check if J is dropping. cash the ace of hearts, run my winners AND end up in south hand, and then decide finesse or squeeze but I can not do that. Maybe too keen on squeeze endings.:)

So you need to take finesse early, before cashing your dummy winners. You may go down 2, but hey, tomorrow is another day.

Disregard my previous posts.
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#23 User is offline   OleBerg 

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Posted 2008-April-22, 15:26

dburn, on Apr 22 2008, 03:04 PM, said:

OleBerg, on Apr 22 2008, 02:51 PM, said:

gnasher, on Apr 22 2008, 01:35 PM, said:

Even if I have to play it single dummy, I think it's a good enough grand slam to bid at IMPs.  The two main chances are:

Jxx = 0.622 *3/7 = 0.267
Jx = 0.305 * 2/7 = 0.087
J singleton = 0.068 * 1/7 = 0.009
Subtotal = 0.363

Q onside = (1-0.363) / 2 = 0.318

So I've already got to 68%, without including either singleton Q offside or the showup squeeze when LHO has Jxxxx and xxx.

You dont need all those calculations. Assuming they always bid 6nt at the other table, it's just good enough without the 10. Only Just.

Best Regards

Ole Berg

I'm not sure I understand this. Without the 10, you will make 7NT when West holds Q, when East holds it singleton, and when East is void in hearts, all of which comes to about 57%.

That would not be good enough odds if there were only one other table (at IMPs - BAM is a different matter). Experience suggests that it is not good enough odds at matchpoints either, unless playing in a small field of uniformly high standard. One could imagine a number of pairs agreeing hearts at an early stage in the auction, finding out that Q is missing, and settling for a small slam in hearts. Without 10, I would be content with 6NT in most fields at matchpoints (the form of scoring specified in the original post).

Even with 10, I still consider that many pairs will find it difficult to bid to 7NT, and I would estimate that 6NT making seven would score pretty well.

You're quite right, I miscalculated. I thuoght there were nine hearts in the combined hands. :P

Actually it only adds up to 55,6552%. Nowhere near the needed 58% (still assuming they always bid at least 6nt at the other table).

Can I have my 10 back, please?

Best Regards

Ole Berg
_____________________________________

Do not underestimate the power of the dark side. Or the ninth trumph.

Best Regards Ole Berg

_____________________________________

We should always assume 2/1 unless otherwise stated, because:

- If the original poster didn't bother to state his system, that means that he thinks it's obvious what he's playing. The only people who think this are 2/1 players.


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#24 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2008-April-22, 16:03

It's matchpoints, so anything more than 50% should do in a strong field.
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

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#25 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2008-April-22, 16:09

Where does 58% come from?

If you bid a grand slam and it makes, you gain 500, or 11 IMPs. If you bid a grand slam and go down one, you lose 1040, or 14 IMPs. Your break-even point is 14/(11 + 14), or 56%.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#26 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2008-April-22, 16:12

Oh ok, I didn't read carefully enough.
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

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#27 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2008-April-22, 16:13

han, on Apr 22 2008, 11:03 PM, said:

It's matchpoints, so anything more than 50% should do in a strong field.

It was matchpoints, but we're talking about IMPs.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#28 User is offline   OleBerg 

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Posted 2008-April-23, 12:47

gnasher, on Apr 22 2008, 05:09 PM, said:

Where does 58% come from?

If you bid a grand slam and it makes, you gain 500, or 11 IMPs.  If you bid a grand slam and go down one, you lose 1040, or 14 IMPs.  Your break-even point is 14/(11 + 14), or 56%.

The 58% comes from my bad memory :)

I guess it is because I use it as a guideline, to make up for all the smaal quirks a contract often have. Things like, not being able to handle a 6-0 break.

Incidently, the suit-combination I thought I saw, a nine card fit with AKJT, is the "worst" allowable combination, you can have in a critical suit, when you bid a grand. (The suit is 57.91% likely to come in.)

To my knowledge at least, maybe Im wrong again. :)

Best Regard

Ole Berg
_____________________________________

Do not underestimate the power of the dark side. Or the ninth trumph.

Best Regards Ole Berg

_____________________________________

We should always assume 2/1 unless otherwise stated, because:

- If the original poster didn't bother to state his system, that means that he thinks it's obvious what he's playing. The only people who think this are 2/1 players.


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