I am just trying to find out what the normal practice is.
1♠ 2♣
2♥ 2NT/3NT
1♥ 2♣
2♥ 2NT/3NT
After a 2/1 do we play responder's 2NT and 3NT any differently if opener bids a new suit compared to after a rebid in the suit opened?
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Is there any difference in these rebids? 2/1 Context
#1
Posted 2008-March-20, 20:37
Wayne Burrows
I believe that the USA currently hold only the World Championship For People Who Still Bid Like Your Auntie Gladys - dburn
dunno how to play 4 card majors - JLOGIC
True but I know Standard American and what better reason could I have for playing Precision? - Hideous Hog
Bidding is an estimation of probabilities SJ Simon
I believe that the USA currently hold only the World Championship For People Who Still Bid Like Your Auntie Gladys - dburn
dunno how to play 4 card majors - JLOGIC
True but I know Standard American and what better reason could I have for playing Precision? - Hideous Hog
Bidding is an estimation of probabilities SJ Simon
#2
Posted 2008-March-20, 22:09
No, same.
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.
- hrothgar
- hrothgar
#3
Posted 2008-March-20, 22:54
On the first auction, 1♠-2♣-2♥-2NT, I would bid 2NT on a fairly large number of unbalanced hands. The reason is that I want to protect my diamond stopper from the lead, and that there's no real incentive to introduce a four-card diamond suit (say I hold 1345 shape).
On the second auction, 1♥-2♣-2♥-2NT, I think 2NT is usually a real balanced hand, since I would definitely bid 2♠ with 4♠ here and might introduce diamonds with 3145 in some instances as well.
On the second auction, 1♥-2♣-2♥-2NT, I think 2NT is usually a real balanced hand, since I would definitely bid 2♠ with 4♠ here and might introduce diamonds with 3145 in some instances as well.
Adam W. Meyerson
a.k.a. Appeal Without Merit
a.k.a. Appeal Without Merit
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