Your bid? Why? Do you play any conventions here?
Poll: Bidding at high level Numer of tricks - to sacrifice or not?
#1
Posted 2004-March-04, 01:52
Your bid? Why? Do you play any conventions here?
#2
Posted 2004-March-04, 03:05
Well, it seems (I hope
Alain
#3
Posted 2004-March-04, 05:38
Do you EVER preempt like hell when V vs NV? I don't think so. Imo, my partner is the one preempting, and they have the hand. Where does 6♣ come from? Probably void ♦. That places a possible top honour ♦ wrong. All other cards are rubish, except the ♥s. I'd pass, and no, I don't play this as forcing...
#4
Posted 2004-March-04, 08:30
mishovnbg, on Mar 4 2004, 02:52 AM, said:
(2♣*) - 2♦ - (5♣) - 5♦
(6♣) - ?
* Precision
Your bid? Why? Do you play any conventions here?
Why might I bid 6♦? This is a tough hand but I think partner bid 5♦ as a save since they are bidding 6♣ vul versus not.
First thing I do is consult the law of total tricks. Partner will have assumed that I have 6♦ so he will have, probably, around 4 to 5. So we have 10 or 11 card fit, I will assume 11 given the favorible vulnerabilty. They will have also 11 or maybe 12 card fit, I will assume 11 as well, but would not be surprised given the vul if it was a 12 card fit. So we have a "22 trick" deal. The law at this level of trumps is frequently wrong. But the law suggest that even if 6♣ is off one, 6♦ at this vul should be a cheap sacrafice versus 5♣. So bidding is not out of the question.
Next as to tricks, I have a probable ♥ trick, but that is it. I really have no expectations that the ♦A will score a trick. Some people play a convention here that pass shows 0 or 2 tricks, and that double shows one. Since partner will be on the lead, I would like to save my double here for either lightner or I have them with any lead. If I had no sure tricks at all, however, I would surely bid 6♦ myself. So I will pass with this hand. Now when the bidding comes to my partner, should he have no trick, he will bid 6♦. If he has a trick or two, he will double.
Now for what do I bid? I pass, and leave the double, bid decision up to partner. If he is looking at...
♠Jx ♥9842 ♦Qxxxxx ♣x he will bid 6♦, if he has
♠Ax ♥98xx ♦Qxxxxx ♣x he will double.
Ben
#5
Posted 2004-March-04, 08:37
Then pd will bid DBL if he has 1 defensive trick and I pass with 1 or defend with 0
If pd has 0 defensive tricks he bids 6d and if he has 2 he just passes.
This is called "negative slam doubles" and I think it's a very useful convention.
#6
Posted 2004-March-04, 09:42
As I have only 1 trick (probably a ♦ void for the 6♣ bid) I would pass and let decision to partner. If he has nothing he would probably bid 6♦.
Alain
#7
Posted 2004-March-04, 09:53
luis, on Mar 4 2004, 02:37 PM, said:
Then pd will bid DBL if he has 1 defensive trick and I pass with 1 or defend with 0
If pd has 0 defensive tricks he bids 6d and if he has 2 he just passes.
This is called "negative slam doubles" and I think it's a very useful convention.
this seems a useful trick. I would give it a try.
#8
Posted 2004-March-04, 10:10
flytoox, on Mar 4 2004, 10:53 AM, said:
luis, on Mar 4 2004, 02:37 PM, said:
Then pd will bid DBL if he has 1 defensive trick and I pass with 1 or defend with 0
If pd has 0 defensive tricks he bids 6d and if he has 2 he just passes.
This is called "negative slam doubles" and I think it's a very useful convention.
this seems a useful trick. I would give it a try.
Well Luis has it wrong... a negative slam double implies ZERO tricks, not 0 or 1. So you double with zero tricks, and pass with more. The idea is that after your side has preempted and they bid a slam, if you double with ZERO tricks, it tells your partner what to do... bid on or defend based upon his hand. And a pass tells him about your trick.
There are a couple downside to negative slam doubles on this hand. First, it takes ligthner double out of your arsenal. Second, it is not necessarily all that clear who is sacraficing and who is bidding to make... let's change the vul to no one, for example.
Finally, to double with more than two tricks and to pass with 0 or 1 as luis suggest would not exactly deserve a special conventional name. Doubling when you can beat them is called normal bridge.
Here is how negative slam double would work on this hand. Your hand would pass, because you indeed have at least one trick (you would double with zero). When bidding comes to your partner, he will pass one trick, happy to defend, since you promised one. With zero tricks, he would double, and you would bid 6♦ as a save since you can only see one in your hand.
This is a nice convention, you must be willing to give up lightner doubles in the direct seat, and it only applies where yourside is preempting in a save-or-defend position against their slam.
Ben
#9
Posted 2004-March-04, 11:40
inquiry, on Mar 4 2004, 04:10 PM, said:
flytoox, on Mar 4 2004, 10:53 AM, said:
luis, on Mar 4 2004, 02:37 PM, said:
Then pd will bid DBL if he has 1 defensive trick and I pass with 1 or defend with 0
If pd has 0 defensive tricks he bids 6d and if he has 2 he just passes.
This is called "negative slam doubles" and I think it's a very useful convention.
this seems a useful trick. I would give it a try.
Well Luis has it wrong... a negative slam double implies ZERO tricks, not 0 or 1. So you double with zero tricks, and pass with more. The idea is that after your side has preempted and they bid a slam, if you double with ZERO tricks, it tells your partner what to do... bid on or defend based upon his hand. And a pass tells him about your trick.
There are a couple downside to negative slam doubles on this hand. First, it takes ligthner double out of your arsenal. Second, it is not necessarily all that clear who is sacraficing and who is bidding to make... let's change the vul to no one, for example.
Finally, to double with more than two tricks and to pass with 0 or 1 as luis suggest would not exactly deserve a special conventional name. Doubling when you can beat them is called normal bridge.
Here is how negative slam double would work on this hand. Your hand would pass, because you indeed have at least one trick (you would double with zero). When bidding comes to your partner, he will pass one trick, happy to defend, since you promised one. With zero tricks, he would double, and you would bid 6♦ as a save since you can only see one in your hand.
This is a nice convention, you must be willing to give up lightner doubles in the direct seat, and it only applies where yourside is preempting in a save-or-defend position against their slam.
Ben
What ? Ben ar you ok? It's exactly the same, there is absolutely no difference in playing pass=0/1 dbl=2 or dbl=0 pass=1/2
When
Pass is 0/1 trick
And double is 2 tricks
After pass pd bids
pass with 2 defensive tricks
double with 1
6x with 0 (you don't have 2)
After pd's doubles with 1 trick
You pass with 1
Defend with 0
When
Pass is 1/2 tricks
And double is 0
After pass
pd passes with 1+
doubles with 0
And after pd doubles
you defend with 1
or pass with 2
What's the difference?
#10
Posted 2004-March-04, 12:29
#11
Posted 2004-March-04, 13:02
Quote
I certainly hope so. What I was thinking was that you misdescribed "negative slam double" as it is my belief this double DENIES a defensive trick. Here is what bridgeworld says about this... Negative slam double = in a competitive auction, the double of a slam to deny defensive tricks.
Bridgeworld link
Now you can play it differently if you like, that is fine, but I was correcting the description as of the convention you named.
The idea of making it ZERO, instead of ZERO/ONE is that you can count your tricks better if you know if your partner has one trick or not. If you hold one trick, and partner double shows one or 0, you don't know what to do. But if the double shows 0, then you know what to do with only one trick.
Ben
#12
Posted 2004-March-04, 13:36
inquiry, on Mar 4 2004, 07:02 PM, said:
Quote
I certainly hope so. What I was thinking was that you misdescribed "negative slam double" as it is my belief this double DENIES a defensive trick. Here is what bridgeworld says about this... Negative slam double = in a competitive auction, the double of a slam to deny defensive tricks.
Bridgeworld link
Now you can play it differently if you like, that is fine, but I was correcting the description as of the convention you described.
The idea of making it ZERO, instead of ZERO/ONE is that you can count your tricks better if you know if your partner has one trick or not. If you hold one trick, and partner double shows one or 0, you don't know what to do. But if the double shows 0, then you know what to do with only one trick.
Ben
Well I learned the convention the other way around and it's the same.
I think that it's like Ogust where what matters is the concept and not the order in which you use the bids because it is the same.
Dbl = 0
Pass = 1/2
Or
Dbl = 2
Pass = 0/1
Can be summarized as "negative slam doubles" in my opinion.
The idea of making it ZERO, instead of ZERO/ONE is that you can count your tricks better if you know if your partner has one trick or not. If you hold one trick, and partner double shows one or 0, you don't know what to do. But if the double shows 0, then you know what to do with only one trick.
Double doesn't show 0 or 1, PASS shows 0 or 1. So you know what to do: Double with 1, pass with 2, defend with 0. See? It's the same :-)
#13
Posted 2004-March-05, 04:30
#14
Posted 2004-March-05, 08:28
Quote
Misho, I know from bitter experience that if you play slam negative doubles (Whichever version), that you can't also play ligtner double. That is your double can't simultaneosly mean... "make and unusual lead" and I have 0 or in 0/1 tricks. I mean, you can't overload the bid that way.
Quote
I think you meant "save" with 0, not pass with 0... and yes this is pretty much the same, although your way the double varies by who makes it. It shows Two in direct seat, and one in the balance seat. This is a fine way to play it, and once again, I didn't mean my comments as anything other than a commentary on my understanding of the "classical" negative slam double as defined in articles I have read. I actually don't play the negative slam double that way either. I like double shows in direct seat wants to play doubled and pass shows uncertainty. Then in balance seat, the player dbls with a mixed decision hand (good for defensive/offensive for bidding to date), takes save with better offensive hand for teh bidding to date, and passes with a better defensive hand... which is another way to describe what you said.
Now misho's direct seat DBL is different from both of these. Yours (And mine) suggest staying playing 6♣X, his suggest bidding on or staying depending upon his partners hand. Misho's pass, suggest defending. This seems an odd treatment.. I guess you would call it the one trick double. His partner is to pass with one trick and bid on with zero. Theoretically, I guess this will work, but seems prone to errors, as his result on this hand shows. If he was playing true "slam negative double" he would pass with this hand, and his partner with 0 would dbl and he would then bid 6D. Playing pass shows 0 or 1 he would pass with this hand, and his parnter with no tricks would bid 6D. Either of those seem clearer than his choosen way.
Ben
#15
Posted 2004-March-07, 07:35
inquiry, on Mar 5 2004, 04:28 PM, said:
Quote
Misho, I know from bitter experience that if you play slam negative doubles (Whichever version), that you can't also play ligtner double. That is your double can't simultaneosly mean... "make and unusual lead" and I have 0 or in 0/1 tricks. I mean, you can't overload the bid that way.
Quote
I think you meant "save" with 0, not pass with 0... and yes this is pretty much the same, although your way the double varies by who makes it. It shows Two in direct seat, and one in the balance seat. This is a fine way to play it, and once again, I didn't mean my comments as anything other than a commentary on my understanding of the "classical" negative slam double as defined in articles I have read. I actually don't play the negative slam double that way either. I like double shows in direct seat wants to play doubled and pass shows uncertainty. Then in balance seat, the player dbls with a mixed decision hand (good for defensive/offensive for bidding to date), takes save with better offensive hand for teh bidding to date, and passes with a better defensive hand... which is another way to describe what you said.
Now misho's direct seat DBL is different from both of these. Yours (And mine) suggest staying playing 6♣X, his suggest bidding on or staying depending upon his partners hand. Misho's pass, suggest defending. This seems an odd treatment.. I guess you would call it the one trick double. His partner is to pass with one trick and bid on with zero. Theoretically, I guess this will work, but seems prone to errors, as his result on this hand shows. If he was playing true "slam negative double" he would pass with this hand, and his partner with 0 would dbl and he would then bid 6D. Playing pass shows 0 or 1 he would pass with this hand, and his parnter with no tricks would bid 6D. Either of those seem clearer than his choosen way.
Ben
OK Ben, majority of good players I asked had like your opinion. Direct double penalty, from partner - ligthner dbl, hope no not forget it, hehe
Misho
#16
Posted 2004-March-07, 09:49
Mike
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Help

(2♣*) - 2♦ - (5♣) - 5♦
(6♣) - ?
* Precision