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does this exist?

Poll: does this exist? (45 member(s) have cast votes)

does this exist?

  1. Yes (14 votes [31.11%])

    Percentage of vote: 31.11%

  2. No (31 votes [68.89%])

    Percentage of vote: 68.89%

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#21 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2008-January-07, 17:12

I play a spade to the king and another spade. If South has played an honour on the first round, I finesse; if North has a singleton trump I play two more rounds. In either case, the idea is that South will be endplayed when clubs are 4-2 or 2-4.

If North has SQJx, I try for clubs 3-3 and then fall back on the heart finesse.

If South has QJ AQxx KJxx Axx, I get wittered at in Norse.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#22 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2008-January-07, 18:15

if south has 3 trumps it is easy to endplay him, but I see no way to endplay him if he has QJ bare.
So just A, K, wins only when trumps 2-2, or 1-3, or a workable finese (in hearts). Might make also against some 4-0 lay outs.
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#23 User is offline   kfay 

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Posted 2008-January-08, 16:41

I think I'm the originator of this thread so obviously my vote is that it does exist B)

Was I 5332? Anyways my reasoning was that if I were to open 1 with my 5-card suit and maybe a more unbalanced distribution wouldn't any hand that would let the auction go 2-2-float over a 1NT opening bid 4 over 1? To me the compensating factor for the distribution here is the extra high-card points ( I believe I was a 15 HCP minimum) and I'm bidding, optimistically, to make at IMPs.

True in the 1NT case you don't need the preemptive value of 4 from responder since you have more defense and thus look stupid when 3 is the limit for everyone. But I did have some concern about the value of my defense when I know that our side has at most 1 heart winner. I believe on the hand in question I wasn't keen to defend anything below the 4-level and ultimately 4 was a result of rationalizing that we'd be there irregardless had I opened 1. Maybe this says I waffle too much in my bidding plans, but that's hardly news.
Kevin Fay
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#24 User is offline   ArtK78 

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Posted 2008-January-08, 17:04

Some years ago, I was playing in a Swiss Team event with Jim Linhart. This was the first time I had played with Jim, although I had played against him many times. He told me about a hand he had played earlier in the tournament in which he had done exactly what is being discussed in this thread - raised a transfer to game after opening 1NT. He said that it was the only way to get to game on the particular hand, and he made it.

In any event, in the last round of the Swiss we had that exact auction. Of course, my hand was good enough to make an invite in any event, and the game made easily. But I almost fell off of my chair in laughter.

Does the bid exist? Not really. But that won't stop some players from making it anyway.
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#25 User is offline   cherdano 

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Posted 2008-January-08, 17:11

kfay, on Jan 8 2008, 04:41 PM, said:

I think I'm the originator of this thread so obviously my vote is that it does exist B)

Was I 5332? Anyways my reasoning was that if I were to open 1 with my 5-card suit and maybe a more unbalanced distribution wouldn't any hand that would let the auction go 2-2-float over a 1NT opening bid 4 over 1?

No. With 5332 I pretty much always transfer opposite 1N but rarely jump to 4 opposite a 1 opening. It is a bad idea to play in 4 because the LAW says so when both hands are balanced.
The easiest way to count losers is to line up the people who talk about loser count, and count them. -Kieran Dyke
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