MP problem - is this a MP raise of 5m to 6?
#1
Posted 2007-December-10, 18:47
East/none.
We are north with
♠5
♥AQ
♦AKT8542
♣K976
Bidding goes:
(1♠) - 2♣ - (pass) - 3♠ (splinter, 4♠ from us is a void).
(pass) - 3NT - (pass) - 4♣ (forcing)
(pass) - 5♣ - (pass) - ?
What now? Partner's style of overcalls is pretty standard, usually 6-card suits etc.
This is MP, but partner should know that too. Do you give him a 6th?
By the way, do you agree with our bidding so far?
EDIT: Oops, I have only 6 diamonds of course, AKT8xx.
#2
Posted 2007-December-10, 18:59
#3
Posted 2007-December-10, 19:04
What would 4♦ and 4♥ have meant? How about 4NT? Since all I care about is the ace of spade, ace of clubs, and queen of clubs, seems like 0314 would have been perfect.
I guess I have to assume that partner's 5♣ shows 6 clubs but no aces. So I guess I'm out. I don't know what else it could mean.
#4
Posted 2007-December-10, 19:13
Maybe he doesn't like cuebidding the ♠A because he's so ashamed of overcalling? I hope not - its a big card opposite my known shortness.
Still, 6♣ looks to be on a 2-2 club break at worst. We are getting creamed by those in 3N so I'm bidding 6♣.
#5
Posted 2007-December-10, 19:17
jtfanclub, on Dec 10 2007, 08:04 PM, said:
What would 4♦ and 4♥ have meant? How about 4NT? Since all I care about is the ace of spade, ace of clubs, and queen of clubs, seems like 0314 would have been perfect.
I guess I have to assume that partner's 5♣ shows 6 clubs but no aces. So I guess I'm out. I don't know what else it could mean.
No special agreements about 4♦, 4♥ or 4NT.
But unfortunately, we play 1430 - not 0314
#6
Posted 2007-December-10, 19:29
George Carlin
#7
Posted 2007-December-10, 20:06
a.k.a. Appeal Without Merit
#8
Posted 2007-December-10, 22:38
#9
Posted 2007-December-11, 03:36
But it's not '6C because if we go down we'll lose to the 3NT-ers', it's '6C at any form of scoring because we expect it to make'
p.s. I would have bid 4D, cue, over 3NT in case on the actual auction he's feeling too embarrassed to cue the ace of spades without a red control.
#11
Posted 2007-December-11, 11:19
- hrothgar
#12
Posted 2007-December-11, 17:41
Aaron
#13
Posted 2007-December-11, 17:44
finally17, on Dec 11 2007, 06:41 PM, said:
I'm sorry.
It's a diamond of course, I have 1-2-6-4.
#14
Posted 2007-December-11, 21:04
While this situation is interesting by itself, I have to admit that it was a law issue.
Not usually being a TD, I was called to the table, because 5♣ came after an admitted pause for thinking, after which north raised to 6♣.
South had
♠Axxx
♥xx
♦Qx
♣AJTxx
and slam was on. (No, I don't agree with his bidding.)
My ruling was ... to let the score stand - claiming that passing 5♣ is no logical alternative.
Such a ruling requires a very heavy vote for bidding on, so I have been rather anxious to see the result of the poll. There has indeed been a heavy vote for bidding on, but really just barely what it takes to justify my ruling.
- any comment?
#15
Posted 2007-December-11, 21:48
#16
Posted 2007-December-11, 22:22
MFA, on Dec 10 2007, 07:47 PM, said:
(1♠) - 2♣ - (pass) - 3♠ (splinter, 4♠ from us is a void).
(pass) - 3NT - (pass) - 4♣ (forcing)
(pass) - 5♣ - (pass) - ?
What now? Partner's style of overcalls is pretty standard, usually 6-card suits etc. This is MP, but partner should know that too. Do you give him a 6th? By the way, do you agree with our bidding so far?
IMO Partner's lack of enthusiasm may be because he holds a grotty 9 HCP with spade values
e.g. ♠ AJTx ♥ x ♦ x ♣ ATxxxxx
I agree that 4N (RKCB) was best. Partner is likely to hold an Ace. If he has two, you want to be in the grand but it is hard to find out now.

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