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1=6=5=1

#1 User is offline   kgr 

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Posted 2007-November-24, 18:50

Scoring: IMP

1S-2H
3C-3D
4H

With his bidding partner showed 5=3=1=4 or 5=3=0=5 and 15 HCP.
With his 3C bid he showed GF hand. If he had bid 3H iso 3C then that would have been 4 card H and GF.
His 4H shows a minimum hand, with more he can bid 3H.
Pass or 4NT (or anything else)?
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#2 User is offline   Ronald_21 

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Posted 2007-November-24, 20:26

4NT for me, it looks like 6 will most of the time be on a finesse at worst.
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#3 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2007-November-25, 02:26

Not easy. Sometimes 5♥ can be too high, others 6 is cold. 4NT I guess.
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#4 User is offline   Codo 

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Posted 2007-November-26, 01:57

pass, pd needs too much to take care of all my diamonds.
If he has Axxxx,KQx,-,Axxxx I see no way to make a slam. And he can have much worse hands.
Kind Regards

Roland


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#5 User is offline   mike777 

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Posted 2007-November-26, 01:59

Codo, on Nov 26 2007, 02:57 AM, said:

pass, pd needs too much to take care of all my diamonds.
If he has Axxxx,KQx,-,Axxxx I see no way to make a slam. And he can have much worse hands.



why does partner just rebid 3h..not 3clubs....how hard is that...sigh.......

over 4D we can slow down now....
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#6 User is offline   kgr 

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Posted 2007-November-26, 14:19

Scoring: IMP

1S-2H
3C-3D
4H-All Pass

- 3C was GF (with a weaker hand North has to bid 2S. 3H would have shown 4 card H and GF)
- 3D was 4th suit GF..but yes it was already GF.
=>
North did show 5=3=1=4 and 15 HCP
South did show 10+ HCP and a 5-card H.
...North was minimum for his bids before he bid 4H, but does his hand with Aces and ♥K is so good that he better bids 3H iso 4H?
:) At the other table opps did bid to 7♥ which made after a none ♥ lead (RHO had 4-card ♦'s. After a ♥ lead 7♥ probably fails).
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