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Do you play this forcing or not? 2/1 bidding sequence

Poll: Yes or no (24 member(s) have cast votes)

Yes or no

  1. Yes (20 votes [83.33%])

    Percentage of vote: 83.33%

  2. No (4 votes [16.67%])

    Percentage of vote: 16.67%

Vote Guests cannot vote

#1 User is offline   jdeegan 

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Posted 2007-August-29, 04:44

;) Unpassed hands at MP's playing 2/1 - do you play 3♠ forcing or not forcing (for one round)?
1♦-P-1♠-P
3♦-P-3♠
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#2 User is offline   FrancesHinden 

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Posted 2007-August-29, 05:04

Um.... do I play 3S as forcing or not forcing? Yes.

I happen to play it as forcing to game, not one round.
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#3 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2007-August-29, 05:06

Everyone plays this as forcing. Maybe a subsequent 4♦ by opener can be passed, based on the theory that opener limited his hand with the 3♦ bid. I think most play it as GF, though.
The world would be such a happy place, if only everyone played Acol :) --- TramTicket
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#4 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2007-August-29, 05:07

it can't be non-forcing. bad hands pass.
... and I can prove it with my usual, flawless logic.
      George Carlin
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#5 User is offline   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2007-August-29, 05:08

Hi,

forcing, although I voted the other way,
just misread the auction.

And forcing for one round does not make
any sense, if it is forcing, it is forcing to
game.

With kind regards
Marlowe
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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#6 User is offline   skjaeran 

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Posted 2007-August-29, 08:57

3♠ is GF to me. Partner showed a good hand with 6+ diamonds. I'm not bidding again to try to improve the contract.

I use wjs here, so I can't have a "weak" hand with 6c♠, but even playing something else (whatever that might be), I'd stick to 3♠ being GF.
Kind regards,
Harald
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