You're the dealer at IMPs. What's your opening bid? If you open 1♠, partner responds 1NT (forcing): what's your plan from there?
What's your plan?
#1
Posted 2007-July-21, 22:15
You're the dealer at IMPs. What's your opening bid? If you open 1♠, partner responds 1NT (forcing): what's your plan from there?
a.k.a. Appeal Without Merit
#2
Posted 2007-July-21, 22:58
"100% certain that many excellent players would disagree. This is far more about style/judgment than right vs. wrong." Fred
"Hysterical Raisins again - this time on the World stage, not just the ACBL" mycroft
#3
Posted 2007-July-21, 23:06
#4
Posted 2007-July-21, 23:57
George Carlin
#5
Posted 2007-July-22, 00:13
and given that both opps have passed to enable the contract to be bid 1S 1NT "your choice" I think it is right not to preempt
#6 Guest_Jlall_*
Posted 2007-July-22, 01:02
#7
Posted 2007-July-22, 01:35
Playing with others I open 1♠ and rebid 3♠ for the same reasons Justin gave in the post above.
Harald
#9
Posted 2007-July-22, 04:47
Jlall, on Jul 22 2007, 09:02 AM, said:
Agree with this, but I said open 1 rebid 4 because this is showing a hand with around an opening and long spades while rebidding 3 rather shows a hand with 6 card S and more points. Or is this not important (probability that opps still intervene is low anyway)?
#10
Posted 2007-July-22, 04:52
With many partners, I'd bid 1...4, but only because this is IMPs and because I have a bazillion ways to force game.
In the style I would be using, 1♠-P-1NT!-P-2NT! is a strong relay to 3♣, GF. Not a true relay, as there are options, but that's not important now.
After partner bids the usual 3♣, I could bid 3♠ and then perhaps insist on spades, or I could bid 4♠ immediately. Or, I could make a solo-splinter of 4♦/4♥.
Or, I could have initially use a 4♠ opening or a 4♦ Namyats.
Or, I could make a 1♠...solo splinter start, as well.
If I had no stiff, I would fit into the non-solo category, which includes:
4♠ immediately (too strong)
Namyats (too weak)
1♠...2NT...4♠ (too weak)
1♠...2NT...3♠...4♠ (too weak)
1♠...4♠ (about right)
This hand has a stiff, but I'm too weak for the direct solo or the delay solo, so I'll elect the direct game bid. I'm close to a direct solo, though (1♠...4♥), but only because I have the possibility of a delayed solo.
Actually, the more I think about this, the more I like 1♠...4♥.
-P.J. Painter.
#11
Posted 2007-July-22, 04:52
Quote
Curious, what do you do with5S4+H hands?
Peter
#12
Posted 2007-July-22, 04:56
pbleighton, on Jul 22 2007, 05:52 AM, said:
Quote
Curious, what do you do with5S4+H hands?
Peter
I'll venture the obvious guess -- transfer rebids, so 2♦. Right?
-P.J. Painter.
#13
Posted 2007-July-22, 04:57
#14
Posted 2007-July-22, 05:29
1S followed by 2S, I can live with 4S and my bid it, although
my partner does not like preempts with two Aces, and hence
my partnership forbids an preemptive opening, I slowly learn
to comply.
1S follwoed by 3S should show a stronger hand, if I dont open
4S, I plan to have a controlled auction to 4S.
With kind regards
Marlowe
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
#15
Posted 2007-July-22, 05:30
awm, on Jul 21 2007, 11:15 PM, said:
AQJT965, 2, A8, 873
You're the dealer at IMPs. What's your opening bid? If you open 1♠, partner responds 1N (forcing): what's your plan from there?
I see 4 Logical Alternatives. Which is best depends on who I'm playing with.
1S-1N;4H!
I'd prefer a 5- loser hand for a self-splinter, but this hand is =so= close given that ♠ suit...
1S-1N;3N
If we had a hand that had a m suit of AQJT9xx and some side controls, we'd have bid 1m-1N;3N to show it. Well...
1S-1N;3S
Many pd's would consider my hand too good for 2S and not good enough for 3S. So...
1S-1N;2S
Yep. I've got pd's who would insist on 15+ playing points for a 3S rebid and this hand has only 14...
How many of us have discussed the above auctions and the related ones with our pd's so that we can be sure that our bids describe the hand type(s) we want them to?
#16
Posted 2007-July-22, 11:03
pbleighton, on Jul 22 2007, 12:52 PM, said:
Quote
Curious, what do you do with5S4+H hands?
Peter
Depends on strenght. But most of the time we rebid 2♦, transfer.
The "problem" hand for the method is 5♠-4♣ (we open minimum 5-5 black 1♣) since 2♣ is transfer to ♦'s. You could use a 2-level opening to show 11-15 with 5♠4♣ (we don't). Or just live with having to pass 1NT with 11-14 and 5-4 in the black suits.
Harald
#17
Posted 2007-July-22, 11:04
pbleighton, on Jul 22 2007, 12:52 PM, said:
Quote
Curious, what do you do with5S4+H hands?
Peter
Depends on strenght. But most of the time we rebid 2♦, transfer.
The "problem" hand for the method is 5♠-4♣ (we open minimum 5-5 black 1♣) since 2♣ is transfer to ♦'s. You could use a 2-level opening to show 11-15 with 5♠4♣ (we don't). Or just live with having to pass 1NT with 11-14 and 5-4 in the black suits. (I didn't see Ken's reply.)
Harald
#18
Posted 2007-July-22, 11:35
awm, on Jul 22 2007, 07:15 AM, said:
You're the dealer at IMPs. What's your opening bid? If you open 1♠, partner responds 1NT (forcing): what's your plan from there?
Looks like a 1♠ opening to me
1. The hand is too strong for 4♠ playing a NAMYATS style. (If I'm not playing NAMYATS, 4♠ still doesn't call to me, though its harder to articulate why)
2. A NAMYATS style 3N or 4♦ is right out (The Spade suit isn't strong enough)
3. 2♠ and 3♠ are complete misrepresentations
this leaves us with a 1♠ opening
#19
Posted 2007-July-22, 12:21
I think I have 2 defensive tricks and thus would not make a hi-level pre-empt. 1♠ opening and then rebid 3♠.
#20
Posted 2007-July-22, 13:09
hrothgar, on Jul 22 2007, 09:35 AM, said:
LOL?
I don't know of anyone that plays the requirement to be completely solid spades.

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