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Question about Polish Clup

#1 User is offline   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2007-July-08, 23:43

Hi,

can opener pass in the sequence

1C (1) - 1D (2)
???

(1) polish, i.e. either weak NT or strong
(2) 0-7

Thanks for your help.

With kind regards
Marlowe
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Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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#2 User is offline   tedi16 

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Posted 2007-July-09, 00:42

No.

And 1D can have other meanings than negative. In wj2005 these are:
1. 0-8 (not 7-8 with 4 card major)
2. 9-11 unbalanced with minor(s)
3. 12-16 balanced (to play nt from partner's hand)
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#3 User is offline   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2007-July-09, 00:45

To clarify the reason: In case our opponents
play Polish Club, we currently have no real bid
for a strong bal. hand.
This is no problem in the seat behind the 1C
opener, but may be a problem behind responder
in case 1D can be passed, if it cant be passed,
than we have no problem.

With kind regards
Marlowe
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Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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#4 User is offline   Gerben42 

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Posted 2007-July-09, 01:29

In classical Matula style, 1♦ includes also 16+ balanced hands. Even if they do not include this, after 1♣ - 1♦, opener does not have a minimum hand with 4 cards in ♦, since he would have opened 1♦ with up to 5♣, and 2♣ with 6 or more ♣.

So it's 100% forcing in any PC variant I've ever seen.
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#5 User is offline   MickyB 

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Posted 2007-July-09, 04:30

I've never seen this played as NF in Polish Club but I have in Swedish Club (Svan). I'm sure that there are PC pairs out there who play it as NF but for the vast majority it will be forcing.
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#6 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2007-July-09, 05:41

PC evolved from Vienna, in which 1♦ is NF. It's possible that some old Polish players who learned PC in the 40's play it as NF. This is pure speculating, though. I don't know how Polish players bid in 40s.
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