[inquiry]

IMPs, EW vul, West deals

South
S AT4
H 954
D KJ842
C KJ


1D - Pass - 1H - Pass (do you pass here?)
1S - Pass - Pass- ? What is your bid, and why. Opponents play 2/1 GF

[flytoox]

two clear pass. u r not going anywhere. both h and d cards lies well for them.

[luis]

inquiry, on Jan 15 2004, 03:26 PM, said:

IMPs, EW vul, West deals

South
S AT4
H 954
D KJ842
C KJ


1D - Pass - 1H - Pass (do you pass here?)
1S - Pass - Pass- ? What is your bid, and why. Opponents play 2/1 GF

I'm passing in the first case.
I reopen with an automatic 1NT in the second case (10-14) balanced.

[Gerben47]

Pass twice. We have a fit, their bidding assures there are at least 4 diamonds behind me, and the cards are well for opponents (majors both divide, and KJ in both minors in front of the strong hand)

[inquiry]

Bd: 16
Dlr: West 
Vul: EW
                     North
                     S 632           
                     H AQJ           
                     D QT53          
                     C A76           

West                                          East
S KJ98                                          S Q75           
H KT2                                          H 8763          
D A96                                          D 7             
C Q42                                          C T9853         

                     South
                     S AT4           
                     H 954           
                     D KJ842         
                     C KJ            


Open Room:

West	North	East	South
 1D    	PASS     1H    	PASS    
 1S    	PASS    PASS    PASS  

One hand, of course, proves nothing. This was the hand an south was a gold star, and choose the pass both time auction chosen by most who replied. Clearly over 1H, this hand is a pass. But i happen to agree with Luis, that over 1S passed back to me, this is a reopening 1NT bid. NS can make 3NT if they bid it.

[Free]

First pass, later on 1NT... Why would you let them play 1S V, while you can play NV whatever you want??

[flytoox]

inquiry, on Jan 15 2004, 08:33 PM, said:

Bd: 16
Dlr: West 
Vul: EW
                     North
                     S 632           
                     H AQJ           
                     D QT53          
                     C A76           

West                                          East
S KJ98                                          S Q75           
H KT2                                          H 8763          
D A96                                          D 7             
C Q42                                          C T9853         

                     South
                     S AT4           
                     H 954           
                     D KJ842         
                     C KJ            


Open Room:

West	North	East	South
 1D    	PASS     1H    	PASS    
 1S    	PASS    PASS    PASS  

One hand, of course, proves nothing. This was the hand an south was a gold star, and choose the pass both time auction chosen by most who replied. Clearly over 1H, this hand is a pass. But i happen to agree with Luis, that over 1S passed back to me, this is a reopening 1NT bid. NS can make 3NT if they bid it.

1S is likely down two, which is better than most partscore. I doubt if you can reach 3N even if you balance in with 1N.

[inquiry]

On this hand, indeed 1S was down two. But, nearly everyone played 3NT North south, after WEST opened 1C rather than 1D. But, again, as I said in the post with the hand, "one hand, of course, proves nothing" I meant by that by showing the hand I am not saying it is right to double or to bid 1NT, nor am I saying it is wrong to pass. I simply put up the hand that spurred my interest in the question. If the vulnerability was reversed, the results of bidding 3NT would be even better and the penalty for passing (down 2 for -100) when part score would would get 150 (two overtricks in 1NT) would be better.

Everyone has to decide for themselves what to do. Here, I think a slight majority of the votes at imps would be for pass, and at mp for 1NT. But I would bid 1NT at both.

Ben

[flytoox]

inquiry, on Jan 15 2004, 08:54 PM, said:

On this hand, indeed 1S was down two. But, nearly everyone played 3NT North south, after WEST opened 1C rather than 1D. But, again, as I said in the post with the hand, "one hand, of course, proves nothing" I meant by that by showing the hand I am not saying it is right to double or to bid 1NT, nor am I saying it is wrong to pass. I simply put up the hand that spurred my interest in the question. If the vulnerability was reversed, the results of bidding 3NT would be even better and the penalty for passing (down 2 for -100) when part score would would get 150 (two overtricks in 1NT) would be better.

Everyone has to decide for themselves what to do. Here, I think a slight majority of the votes at imps would be for pass, and at mp for 1NT. But I would bid 1NT at both.

Ben

This brings another issue to consider. In the given deal, we are non vs vul, so you are more free to take action. But there is a dilemma. If we r vul and they r not, then we may protect as well, though much more dangerous. As what we can get from beating them may be less than a partscore by us.

So now i get lost. Should we compete more vul vs not or non vs vul?

fly

[Trpltrbl]

First pass I agree with, second time around I will bid 1 NT, pd has something in for sure and has points to. Reaching 3 NT depends soley on pd. I imagine with most of my pd's we will get there. It also can help and find out what opps style is opening with equal length minors. But it is a bidders game and I have a bid

Mike