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slam suitable min

#1 Guest_Jlall_*

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Posted 2007-May-21, 12:49

Imps, you hold Ax Kxxx xxx KQxx. You open 1C, partner bids 1D, and you bid 1H (this is your style, I don't care what you think of this style). Partner bids 1S, natural 1 round force. You bid 1N. Partner bids 4N.

1) What do you bid?
2) Do you agree with 1N rather than 2D?
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#2 User is offline   inquiry 

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Posted 2007-May-21, 12:56

I will pass.. yes this is a fine looking 12 hcp, but I lack T's and 9's, I have doubleton ACE in one of partners suits and three small in the other, and no source of tricks outside of his suits.

I guess if 1 was my style (it is not), I would know what 1 promised besides natural and 1NT force. For example, how would 1 differ from 2, and what other option did partner have to the natural and invitiation 4NT. Does partner need 5+ for this auction? How "light" can I be for this auction. Would a shapely 10 hcp count? Do I only open some 11 counts when balanced?

I guess we could play with the constraints such that I might try for slam wiht this hand, but realistically, at the table after 4NT on this auction, I am done.
--Ben--

#3 User is offline   Echognome 

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Posted 2007-May-21, 12:58

I pass. Despite my hand being nice and controlly, I still have a minimum opener and partner has only invited slam.

I agree with 1N as it's the best description of my hand.
"Half the people you know are below average." - Steven Wright
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#4 User is offline   Edmunte1 

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Posted 2007-May-21, 13:05

1) I would have passed (with A instead of K i would have bid 5 showing the possibility of playing 6 or 5NT ). Without A I need a too much better hand from partener to make 6
2) I agree with 1NT, 2 should show an unbalanced hand (1435, 1444)
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#5 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2007-May-21, 13:51

I would pass for what Ben said, lack of 10s and 9s.
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#6 User is offline   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2007-May-21, 13:52

Hi

1) pass, you have a nice hand, but sometimes
you also need the power
2) I agree, but it is not worth much, I am quite old fashioned

With kind regards
Marlowe
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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#7 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2007-May-21, 14:13

Definitely agree with 1NT as opposed to 1D.

I pass now. Yes, this is a suitable minimum but I don't think it is an exceptional minimum.
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

- hrothgar
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#8 User is offline   BebopKid 

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Posted 2007-May-21, 14:30

I'd pass. Partner has dancing shoes on, but mine are at the cleaners, so I'm not going to the dance.


BebopKid (Bryan Lee Williams)

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#9 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2007-May-21, 14:32

Depends on who pard bids. Since 99% of pards overbid on good hands, I think pass is a no-brainer :P
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#10 User is offline   mike777 

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Posted 2007-May-21, 14:39

Jlall, on May 21 2007, 01:49 PM, said:

Imps, you hold Ax Kxxx xxx KQxx. You open 1C, partner bids 1D, and you bid 1H (this is your style, I don't care what you think of this style). Partner bids 1S, natural 1 round force. You bid 1N. Partner bids 4N.

1) What do you bid?
2) Do you agree with 1N rather than 2D?

I thought I read somewhere this week that some guy, Bart Bramley??, not sure who he is, suggests rebidding nt.

I think he said something along the lines of bid notrump as soon as possible on a balanced hand, especially with short honors. Investigation of suit contracts is on a firmer footing when partner knows my hand-type, both when he rebids notrump and when he does not.

p=p=1c=p
1h=??

9743....AKJ...Q7...A642
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#11 User is offline   Sambolino 

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Posted 2007-May-21, 14:44

6d might be a winner; assume pard can bid 2d instead of 4n to hear further about dist. but the problem is that even after 3d he still has no clue whether i hold 3433 or 2432; no problem with that playing 4 card majors.
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#12 User is online   mikeh 

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Posted 2007-May-21, 14:45

I pass, and agree with 1N.

An important reason for the pass is that I only hold one working card in partner's suits..

I am assuming that we had ways to better describe distributional strong hands as responder, so I'm tending to think in terms of KQxx Qx AKQJx Jx as protoypical for his sequence....

So a minimum such as Ax K109x xxx KQ10x would be slam suitable..

If he is semi-balanced, he will need some tricks from my suits...even tho his hand will take the majority of the tricks.. and he will have shortness...so I can't count on him having the missing interior cards I need.

Sorry: a long-winded way of echoing the earlier posts :P
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#13 Guest_Jlall_*

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Posted 2007-May-21, 14:49

mike777, on May 21 2007, 03:39 PM, said:

Jlall, on May 21 2007, 01:49 PM, said:

Imps, you hold Ax Kxxx xxx KQxx. You open 1C, partner bids 1D, and you bid 1H (this is your style, I don't care what you think of this style). Partner bids 1S, natural 1 round force. You bid 1N. Partner bids 4N.

1) What do you bid?
2) Do you agree with 1N rather than 2D?

I thought I read somewhere this week that some guy, Bart Bramley??, not sure who he is, suggests rebidding nt.

I think he said something along the lines of bid notrump as soon as possible on a balanced hand, especially with short honors. Investigation of suit contracts is on a firmer footing when partner knows my hand-type, both when he rebids notrump and when he does not.

p=p=1c=p
1h=??

9743....AKJ...Q7...A642

mike dont spam my threads with this garbage, I said I don't care what you feel about the choice to rebid 1H. That is our system. It was actually bart bramley who rebid 1H so thats what makes this so funny.
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#14 User is offline   mike777 

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Posted 2007-May-21, 15:01

spam? I said nothing about the 1h bid, I just said I agree with your rebid 1nt and added some comments that Bart said about rebidding 1nt, was that spam?

Yes I thought it was funny, since Bart just wrote this, sorry my humor pissed you off but I thought it was a very valid point. :P
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#15 User is offline   skjaeran 

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Posted 2007-May-21, 15:37

Agree 100% with 1NT.
Clear pass now.
Kind regards,
Harald
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#16 User is offline   awm 

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Posted 2007-May-21, 15:42

Pass... is this really a "slam suitable" minimum? I'd much rather have the kings and queens in partner's suit and aces elsewhere. Say something like:

Kx xxxx KJx AJxx

This is a "worse" hand by some measures, but the cards are all working and I'd feel compelled to try for 6. On the actual hand it's easy to imagine some of those kings and queens turning out worthless opposite shortness.
Adam W. Meyerson
a.k.a. Appeal Without Merit
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#17 Guest_Jlall_*

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Posted 2007-May-21, 15:58

Partners hand was Kxxx Ax AKxxx Ax.
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#18 User is offline   Edmunte1 

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Posted 2007-May-21, 16:04

8 controls and 5th diamond. Really amazing. I think partner shouldn't jump in 4NT. A 2 relay, looking for 3 card fit in diamonds (just 50% chance after 1nt :) would have been better
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#19 Guest_Jlall_*

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Posted 2007-May-21, 16:09

I would suspect that 5422 is by far the most likely shape on this auction, though it's not a lock obviously.
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#20 User is offline   inquiry 

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Posted 2007-May-21, 16:25

Jlall, on May 21 2007, 04:58 PM, said:

Partners hand was Kxxx Ax AKxxx Ax.

Wow... nice responder hand. 18 hcp, 8 controls, 38 ZAR points and your partner opened without 4. ZAR rules would say your partner needs at least 26 ZAR points in that case... and zar count is 26+38 = 64 ZAR points (62 needed for slam). This would suggest that 4NT was a "zar-underbid". Of course few use ZAR but at least he suggest that 4NT is an unbid.

What about openers hand. HE had 12 hcp, 4 controls, and 10 distributional ZAR points.. an absolute, total ZAR minimum opening bid of 26 ZAR points (zar advocates 25 as minimum when holding 4+spades). So from a zar perspective opener has a clear pass of the invite and responder is too strong to simply invite slam.

I find it hard to think Opener can be held responsible for passing this hand, but rather think the question is should responder just bid 6NT over 1NT, or investigate if 6 is a better contract. And in the second case, how.
--Ben--

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