1m-(ps)-1M-(DBL)-
Supposing redouble now is support, you have a weak nt hand. Without interference you will rebid 1N, but now do you still rebid 1N if your point range is 12-14hcp, or will you assign different meaning to pass and 1N?
Thanks.
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1m-(ps)-1M-(DBL)-1N
#2
Posted 2007-May-15, 21:15
I'd only bid 1NT when I have a sound hand and good positional values.
With Arend I actually play that 1C-(p)-1X-(Dbl)-1NT shows 17-19 balanced but that is not standard.
With Arend I actually play that 1C-(p)-1X-(Dbl)-1NT shows 17-19 balanced but that is not standard.
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.
- hrothgar
- hrothgar
#3
Posted 2007-May-16, 00:11
I'll bid 1NT on a normal 12-14 hand. It's often the case that on this auction when I have a weak notrump, the points are pretty evenly divided. In this situation there is often a substantial advantage to the side that bids 1NT first, not to mention possibly making it harder for opponents to bid spades if my partner's major was hearts.
In fact with the stronger (18-19) notrump hand I would be tempted to pass and then try to penalize the opponents later contract.
In fact with the stronger (18-19) notrump hand I would be tempted to pass and then try to penalize the opponents later contract.
Adam W. Meyerson
a.k.a. Appeal Without Merit
a.k.a. Appeal Without Merit
#5
Posted 2007-May-16, 04:16
Without really answering the question, I've never seen much value in a support redouble, and prefer to play 1NT as support (non-forcing) and redouble as a generally strong hand.
#6
Posted 2007-May-16, 04:39
I agree with Frances here - but I prefer to play PASS as support.
Regardless of what XX shows, 1NT would still be 12 - 14 here.
Regardless of what XX shows, 1NT would still be 12 - 14 here.
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