[DWM]

Scoring: IMP

---

After

(P) - 2S - (P)

I assume you do not take any action as both ops have passed, is this correct?

IF the bidding continues

(P) - 2S - (P) - P
(3H) - P - (4H)

do you do anything now?

[mike777]

DWM, on Apr 27 2007, 07:42 AM, said:

Dealer: West Vul: ???? Scoring: IMP

♠ AT9 ♥ K9 ♦ A9642 ♣ 982

After

(P) - 2S - (P)

I assume you do not take any action as both ops have passed, is this correct?

IF the bidding continues

(P) - 2S - (P) - P
(3H) - P - (4H)

do you do anything now?

1) I bid 3s never pass...I have 3 spades yes?
2) Now you force me to pass.

[cherdano]

DWM, on Apr 27 2007, 06:42 AM, said:

After

(P) - 2S - (P)

I assume you do not take any action as both ops have passed, is this correct?

Incorrect.

[hrothgar]

I'm not sure that passing partner's 2♠ opening is that clear cut. The decision depends an awful lot the partner's agreements about second seat weak 2s. Give partner a reasonable opening (say)

♠ QJ7xxx
♥ Axx
♦ xx
♣ xx

And game depends on the Spade hook.

Reasonable people will differ about the best way to advance with this hand. Some people (not me mind you) would advocate 3♦ as a fit non jump. Others might suggest 2NT as some kind of asking bid (feature with max, shortness ask, OGUST, what have you). Other's might prefer simply to jump to 4♠ and pray.

My choice will (obviously) depend on the tools available to the partnership. However, I lean towards 2NT:

If we're playing OGUST, I'll bid 4♠ opposite a "good hand"
If we're playing "show feature with max" I'll try game opposite a max
If we're playing shortness, I'll bid game opposite club or heart shortness

[glen]

DWM, on Apr 27 2007, 07:42 AM, said:

I assume you do not take any action as both ops have passed, is this correct?

No, not correct. 3♠s, and not some 4-3-3-3, and not soft values, equals 3♠ bid. However another consideration is if the weak two can be good, we could have a nice 4♠ contract:

♠: KQxxxx
♥: Axx
♦: xx
♣: xx

So if this hand would not be rare for the partnership style, I bid 2NT, assuming it asks.

[hotShot]

DWM, on Apr 27 2007, 02:42 PM, said:

(P) - 2S - (P)

I assume you do not take any action as both ops have passed, is this correct?

No! I bid 3♠.

Many player pass 1- or 2- suited hand close to opening strength in first seat. We have 9 ♠ and it's quite obvious that opps have at least 8♥ (because partner won't have a 4card ♥ suit). So opps have a clear 3♥ contract and a good chance to make 4♥, if partner is at the minimum end of the possible strength.

If partner has values outside of ♠, than 4♥ is probably down. Since 4♠ won't make it does not seem to be a good defense.
So over 4♥ I pass.

[skjaeran]

This depends on your style. But I'd never pass unless playing with Marty Bergen.

Playing my regular style, I'd try for game via 2NT. Playing a less constructive style, I'd raise to 3♠ as a tactical ploy.

[goobers]

When you pass and opps reach their cold heart game, next time you'll know not to pass (that's how I learned!)

[pclayton]

3♠ is clear. I've gone for 300 before.

I hope you aren't characterizing 3♠ as "poker" and pass as "bridge". Its the other way around.