helene_t, on Apr 21 2007, 09:14 AM, said:
luke warm, on Apr 21 2007, 03:35 PM, said:
I've heard that argument before. Not sure if my problem is that I don't understand it, or if I just disagree, or if it's because times have changed since the constitution was written.
like i said, it isn't remarkable to me that europeans find the logic hard to understand, or even that they disagree with it... it's a matter of history and philosophy... and you and i disagree on the degree of change "times" have wrought.. governments are the same as they've always been, they all tend to usurp power until it's as centrally located as possible... the constitution as written is brilliant, it's the interpretation and application of that interpretation that has changed over the years
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i agree that tyranny can be shown in different ways... you don't see how gun ownership enters into it, but tell me how the governed in a free country can impose their will on those governing when the governed is disarmed... elections? dictatorships have occurred in democracies before... our founders thought that only an armed populace could prevent that from happening here
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if the ones you mention are part of the constitution-destroying gov't, yes ... because of our history, as opposed to that of most european countries, it's my view that americans would fight if threatened with tyranny, unless disarmed to the point that "resistence is futile"
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no, the gov't has the right to punish criminals, not individual citizens (self-defense an exception)... the things you mention should be handled from within the framework of constitutional law, and it's my view that so far that is happening (congressional hearings, judicial procedings, etc)...