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Interference

#1 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2007-April-02, 16:21

Scoring: BAM


p-1*-3-all pass

1 was 15+unbal/16+bal

Please assign the blame for the suboptimal final contract (new suits by S are F1). Feel free to introduce your system vs interference here, but if at all possible, keep those remarks in a separate paragraph.

Thank you for your help.

ps: if it helps, all 4 players on the other table are playing standard. @ this vulnerability your teammates are pretty agressive WJO'ers.
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#2 User is offline   pbleighton 

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Posted 2007-April-02, 16:35

I would double as North, as imperfect as that call is. If you really need to pass, stop playing a strong club system, because the opps will eat you alive.

3S by South is pushy but OK.

Most of the blame to North.

Peter
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#3 User is offline   Flame 

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Posted 2007-April-02, 16:39

Im reading Davidc blog about bidding thory and its great, one of the things he mention there is that hands with about 20 hcp should always be able to bid twice so according to this north has a second bid. I would probebly bid with south too because of the shortage. So for me its 100% blame for North and about 75% for south.
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#4 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2007-April-02, 16:53

I would have bid 3S with the south hand (or 4S if that shows this hand). I'm a king light but I have a 6-card suit and heart shortness. I'd likely bid game opposite a 16-18 balanced hand.

North has an easy 3NT call after south's pass.
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

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#5 User is offline   jdonn 

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Posted 2007-April-02, 17:27

I think north could bid 3NT when it came back, but it's close and I don't fault a pass. KQ doubleton is not 5 points and his long suit is weak.

I really feel it's souths responsibility to overbid with 3 in competition with this hand. He is the one who is short in the opponents' suit, and it feels a lot better to occasionally get too high than it does to never bid at all and find you have game.
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#6 User is offline   cherdano 

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Posted 2007-April-02, 18:08

I don't understand. Why is 3S an overbid? If partner would open a balanced 17-19, we would definitely bid 4S. So we are overbidding by at most a point, but we have the upside that partner is unlikely to have much wastage opposite our shortness. If partner is unbalanced, we are also pretty much guaranteed a fit.

Of course North can bid again, but steal an ace from him and game is still good.
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#7 User is offline   effervesce 

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Posted 2007-April-02, 19:47

For me, 4S is a clearcut bid by south. 3S in our moscito system would be game forcing, 4S just to play. N also has a good hand enough hand to bid again.

Systematically:

1C - (X or 1D) can be handled easily in any inteference system
1C - (1H/S/1NT/2C): step = takeout of the suit; if no anchor suit for overcall then natural GF; 2NT shows minors, cue = michaels, X = GF balanced/4441 (not singleton in their suit). Jump in suit bids NNF.
1C - (2D+): any action game forcing-X = t/o
Ming

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#8 User is offline   Free 

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Posted 2007-April-03, 04:00

Imo the methods you use are the main problem. If south can't bid competitive, you're screwed. North can't double apparently, so you're screwed again. I'd change my methods if a simple 3 overcall gets you out of the auction!

With my partner we use the following rule: if they intervene at 2-level or higher, opener substracts 7hcp and responder adds 7hcp to his hand (virtual points obviously), and we bid like there was no 1 opening. This means South now has a hand worth 13hcp with a 6 card so he would probably overcall 3 after a 3 opening.

So the auction would go:
1 - 3 - 3 - pass
4 - pass - pass - pass

Unless opener thinks he's worth a 4 bid...
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#9 User is offline   mhais 

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  Posted 2007-April-03, 05:23

:rolleyes: i will bid 3s showing 8+ 5 cards & leave to pd 3hx pd might take as penalty & pass which i dont want.
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#10 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2007-April-03, 05:45

My first thought was to double with the South hand but 3 is probably better. I don't blame North for passing.
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#11 User is offline   FrancesHinden 

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Posted 2007-April-03, 06:02

South has to bid 3S.
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#12 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2007-April-03, 07:46

and north has to bid 3NT
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#13 User is offline   skjaeran 

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Posted 2007-April-03, 09:13

I don't think it's correct to pass with any of those two hands. So both is to blame. Since north's decision is the decisive one, I'll apportion 55% to him/her.

South should have bid 3, which north would raise (via 4 probably) and north should have balanced, probably with 3NT, but double is also possible.
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#14 User is offline   ulven 

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Posted 2007-April-03, 09:28

As always, opinions differ.

For me, I have a strong dislike for stretching to make positive replies after strong 1C interference. I put the burden on the strong hand to act again. This approach is by agreement.

So, I'd pass the South hand, re-open with 3NT with the North hand and then remove with 4S.
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#15 User is offline   Edmunte1 

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Posted 2007-April-03, 14:47

South should have bid 3. He has the 6-4 shape and heart shortage. And i don't even consider this an overbid. North is in trouble now, but this a systemic matter, playing strong club when opponents preempt you can have a harsh time. He has a pretty bad hand with a poor suit, too many hearts, no 4 spades, and only doubleton in diamonds. Double seems risky, and 3nt tough without a source of tricks. Some bidding theorists consider that you should take out the 2nt hand from strong club, for main reason that you now can pass 17-19 hands and dbl with stronger/distributional hands.

So i consider South 80% guilty, and North 20%, especially due to systemic reasons
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#16 User is offline   Apollo81 

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Posted 2007-April-04, 13:58

South gets most of the blame. Looks like inexperience with strong club.
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#17 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2007-April-04, 16:38

OK I was South this board. I like Arend's reasoning why 3 should be bid.

Convinced as I am that 3 looks like a good call, I wonder... Can any of you guys run a little simulation about the chances for a game (basically 4 or 5m I guess, I'm not sure one should let 3NT in after 3) ie North has 15+/16+ and East has (say) 5-12 hcp with 7 hearts.
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#18 User is offline   dake50 

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Posted 2007-April-05, 02:46

Although 3S is clear to me.
This is my partnership's Achilles. Forcing pass at 2-level and 4+level, BUT best guess at 3-level.
Is this strategically correct? What say you experts?
What hand types are eased/ pained by this strategy? ==how to show hands most needed? What is left to wicked measures? a structure please
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#19 User is offline   dake50 

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Posted 2007-April-06, 07:45

Half the deck hcp as minimum AND 6 card spades AND H-2nd control can't pass.
4S best guess if no vs. obstruct agreements.
Play xfers in comp: 4H -> spades, then cue 5C(also H-control, else pass 4S). Here partner insists slam/grand try.
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#20 User is offline   ulven 

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Posted 2007-April-06, 14:02

Apollo81, on Apr 4 2007, 02:58 PM, said:

South gets most of the blame.  Looks like inexperience with strong club.

Yes, that's why I'd pass with the South hand too...
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