[kgr]

MP's
Your partner deals and opens 1♣ which can be a 2-card (with 4=4=3=2) and RHO bids 1S.
You hold:
void-KJxxxxx-xx-KJxxx
and decide to overcall 2♥ forcing ans showing 5+card H.
The bidding continues:
1C-(1S)-2H-(2S)
3NT-(P)-??
Remark: 3NT can be as weak as 15 HCP with e.g. a singleton/void in Hearts.

I don't remember the other hands, but my questions are: (taking into account that it is MP's!):
- If you bid 4C now (forcing and slem interest) can you still reach 4H then? If partner cues (1st or 2nd control) 4D, Is 4H by you a cue or showing extra length in hearts?
- Would you call pass, 4C or 4H over 3NT?
(- I guess you can't show extra H and C with one bid?)

Thanks,
Koen

[Apollo81]

I've never held 0725 shape before.

[hrothgar]

Apollo81, on Apr 4 2007, 07:57 PM, said:

I've never held 0725 shape before.

The sad thing is that I have. Regardless...

Assuming that you have a more mundane 0-7-2-4 hand, I'd bid 4♥. This hand looks to be worth a lot more with Hearts as trump than in NT. Moreover, if NT goes wrong, its going to go spectacularly wrong. Also, this is MP. I'm not exploring 5♣, even though I suspect that we have an eight card fit.

One quick comment: I'm not particularly excited about my chances of making slam opposite a 4=1=4=4 15 count. It looks like 3NT could show a wide variety of different hand types. Personally, I think that exploring for slam is too dangerous.

[FrancesHinden]

If I'm 0724 I bid 4H.
If I'm 0625 or 0715 I bid 4C (and pass partner's 4H).

I can't believe pass is right in either case.

[pclayton]

FrancesHinden, on Apr 4 2007, 09:13 AM, said:

If I'm 0724 I bid 4H.
If I'm 0625 or 0715 I bid 4C (and pass partner's 4H).

I can't believe pass is right in either case.

This feels right. I can be talked into a 5♣ rebid with a 0-6-2-5 too.

[whereagles]

4♣ sounds like a no brainer, though a masterminding 4♥ might work better with a tad luck.

[jdonn]

To answer your other question, if you bid 4♣ and partner bids 4♥, or partner bids 4♦ and you bid 4♥, both of those bids should be passable. If partner has a true slam try over 4♣ he has to look for another bid if he doesn't want you passing 4♥.

[Apollo81]

FrancesHinden, on Apr 4 2007, 01:13 PM, said:

If I'm 0724 I bid 4H.
If I'm 0625 or 0715 I bid 4C (and pass partner's 4H).

I can't believe pass is right in either case.

agree

[kgr]

Apollo81, on Apr 4 2007, 06:57 PM, said:

I've never held 0725 shape before.

Sorry..
Should be: void-KJxxxx-xx-KJxxx

[kgr]

jdonn, on Apr 4 2007, 08:59 PM, said:

To answer your other question, if you bid 4♣ and partner bids 4♥, or partner bids 4♦ and you bid 4♥, both of those bids should be passable. If partner has a true slam try over 4♣ he has to look for another bid if he doesn't want you passing 4♥.

1C-(1S)-2H-(2S)
3NT-(P)-4C-(P)
4D-(p)-4H-(P)
??
I wonder if this would be ever passable from partner's viewpoint. He does not see the v=KJxxxx=xx=KJxxx.
It seems like 4C is a slem try and 4H a cue, Isn't it?
Can it be that we are influenced by our own hand, and hope that partner will act according to it? (Maybe it would have been better if I simply had posted the above auction)

Thanks,
Koen
PS: Appreciate you views! Just wondering if you can really pass at the other side of the table.

[jdonn]

kgr, on Apr 4 2007, 03:53 PM, said:

jdonn, on Apr 4 2007, 08:59 PM, said:

To answer your other question, if you bid 4♣ and partner bids 4♥, or partner bids 4♦ and you bid 4♥, both of those bids should be passable. If partner has a true slam try over 4♣ he has to look for another bid if he doesn't want you passing 4♥.

1C-(1S)-2H-(2S)
3NT-(P)-4C-(P)
4D-(p)-4H-(P)
??
I wonder if this would be ever passable from partner's viewpoint. He does not see the v=KJxxxx=xx=KJxxx.
It seems like 4C is a slem try and 4H a cue, Isn't it?
Can it be that we are influenced by our own hand, and hope that partner will act according to it? (Maybe it would have been better if I simply had posted the above auction)

Thanks,
Koen
PS: Appreciate you views! Just wondering if you can really pass at the other side of the table.

4♣ doesn't have to be a slam try, though it often will be, it could just be bidding out one's hand in search of the best game. After all if you are 6-4 in hearts and clubs you will figure you belong in one of them but you won't know which. Then 4♦ by opener caters to responder having slam interest in clubs, and 4♥ just continues to bid out his shape. I admit a lot of players might take 4♥ as a cuebid, especially inexperienced ones, but I'm sure both that more experienced players would take it as an offer to play, and that that is the best way to play it.

[FrancesHinden]

The discussion of 'when is 4 of my major a cue bid, and when is it an offer to play' is not always an easy one, but this is - to my mind - one of the more straightforward auctions to know that 4H by opener is an offer to play.

[skjaeran]

FrancesHinden, on Apr 4 2007, 11:36 PM, said:

The discussion of 'when is 4 of my major a cue bid, and when is it an offer to play' is not always an easy one, but this is - to my mind - one of the more straightforward auctions to know that 4H by opener is an offer to play.

4♥ by opener over 4♣'s is surely an obvious offer to play.

But it's not so clear that 4♥ by responder after a 4♦ cuebid by opener should be an offer to play.

No doubt, it makes sense to play it that way, but it makes just as much sense to play it as a cuebid. Each partnership must decide for themselves.

[effervesce]

Eh-would never have had this problem in my system - 1C - (1S) - 3H! would be a fit-showing jump - showing 5+ hearts, 4+ clubs. Then rebid your hearts over p's expected 4C bid showing your good hearts.