[DWM]

Scoring: IMP

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Bidding Starting with West

(1♣) X (3NT) 4D
(5♣) P (P)    5D
(P)    P (X)

Should north have doubled the 5♣ bid?

With no double there should south have bid 5♦, bearing in mind the fav vun?

[inquiry]

At matchpoints I would have taken my chances with a double of 5♣. After all, I think this is going down more often than making. At imps, I would just pass and defend 5♣ and hope partners 4♦ bid removed them from an ice-cold 3NT contract to something we can beat. If we can, we win huge, if not, we break even or get a small plus for the overtrick in NT they don't get in 5♣.

However, the problem in my mind's eye on this hand is south's 4♦===5♦ bidding. South described his hand (more or less) with the 4♦ call. His bidding at that point should be over. If he was going to bid 5♦ anyway, he should have bid it the round before. So south went from hero (4♦) to zero (5♦).

[whereagles]

I might have passed 5♣ with South's hand. 4♦ was already a stretch.. North knows that because if 3NT was a joke and South has a good hand after all, South should dbl.

[HeartA]

Jlall, on Mar 21 2007, 10:04 AM, said:

North has 3 tricks and a partner who bid... he can find a X.

Pass is OK, though dbl might be better. In any case, South should not bid 5D.