Grand at the club today Bid this hand to a spade grand
#1
Posted 2007-January-30, 15:38
opener: ♠ AXXXXX ♥ VOID ♦ XX ♣ AKXXX
responder: ♠ KQJXX ♥ AXX ♦ AXXXX ♣ VOID
How can each find out about the other's void and second suit? What is the best bidding to reach the easy grand?
Thanks all,
Patsy
#2
Posted 2007-January-30, 15:44
2S* (any min) - 4C* (splinter)
4H* (cuebid) - 5NT* (GSF)
6H* (yes to trump honor, heart control absolute) - 7S.
#3
Posted 2007-January-30, 15:55
#4
Posted 2007-January-30, 16:11
Using a basic 2/1 style:
1♠ 2♦
2♠ 3♠: 2♠ minimum hand, 3♠ slam try
4♣ 4♦
4♥ 5♥
5N 7♣
7♠
Note that many pairs use 7♣ as the ultimate step in response to gsf, but many would just bid 7♠ here.
4♣ is a cue, as is 4♦. I generally do not cue voids early, if I can avoid them, since I like the first cue to inform partner that his King or KQ or AQ holdings are upgradable opposite my Ace or King initial cue, but I have no qualms about cuing the ♥ void after 4♦. My cue-bidding style is that once responder showed mild (or better) slam interest via 3♠, both partners will cue below game unless they have truly horrible hands in context, and both have pretty good hands, so the cue-bidding through 4♥ seems clear.
I think 5♥ should be understood as the Ace.. not as the King.... it is most unlikely that responder has the values to go beyond 4♠ while being unable to keycard or to show a second round minor control.
Once opener hears that responder has strong slam interest, via 5♥, and knows that his side has zero red suit losers, then grand requires good trump and the ability to bring the ♣ suit home: even KQx Axx Axxxxx x offers some hope, and KQxx Ax Axxxx xx makes it very, very good.
I can't help feeling that this is just not realistic.... how can opener know that responder has enough trump (surely KQx is good trump for responder) or that he doesn't hold xxx or Jxx in ♣s?
Let me repeat where I began: I think this one is deceptively difficult in real life.
Dwayne's bidding, as an example, seems implausible in his GSF responses: most expert pairs use the 6 level to show varying degrees of trump strength: I have never even heard of the use of 6♥ as he uses it...to confirm absolute ♥ control. And, far more troubling is his apparent lack of concern about the ♦ suit: just how differently would opener bid with Axxxxx void Qx AQxxx, as an example?
Now, let me introduce you to a relay method, such as the one I used to play, and this is an extremely easy hand
#5
Posted 2007-January-30, 16:46
3♥-3♠
4♣-4NT
5♥-6♦ (K/Q ask)
7♠-pass
I think this is as simple as you're going to get. Responder should bid 6♦ rather than 5NT because he doesn't want to be in grand opposite Axxxx x Kxx AKxx. Opener should bid 7♠ because he has extras and can reasonably assume no losers.
Responder can also bid Exclusion over 3♥ if you're playing that.
I don't think with starting with any bid other than 2NT is going to be more helpful.
#6
Posted 2007-January-30, 17:13
Thus how can either partner use keycard meaningfully? Say responder discovers the ♥ void.... why on earth should that tell responder that there are no ♦ losers??
Appollo's auction doesn't begin to address the ♦ issue until the 6 level, and it is far from clear that 6♦ says what he seems to want it to say.
On his auction, up to 4N, how would opener have bid Axxxx x Jxx AKxx? This is not a hand on which you want to reach even the 6 level, yet Appollo is hauling out a grand slam try.
Sorry, Appollo, I do not mean to pick on you: I think your sequence makes at least as much sense as my suggestion... maybe this hand is too difficult for standard bidding, without one player applying a generous amount of optimism.
#7
Posted 2007-January-30, 17:21
2NT (fit-showing, 4+)
3♣ (unbalanced, non-minimum)
3♦ (where's the stiff?)
3♥ (in the other major, hearts)
3♠ (cue, two top spade honors)
3NT (serious)
4♣ (club control -- known by Opener to be a stiff/void)
Opener should probably take over now.
4NT (1430)
6♣ (three plus a void in clubs)
This looks like 12 easy tricks, but Opener needs something more.
6♥ (a 6-level bid in the short suit? Must be LTTC)
7♠.
-P.J. Painter.
#8
Posted 2007-January-30, 17:26
#9
Posted 2007-January-30, 17:32
1♠(1) - 4♣ (2)
4♥(3) - 5♣ (4)
5♥(5) - 6♥ (6)
7♠(7)
(1) Natural
(2) Singleton or void club and 4+♠
(3) Cuebid; 1st or 2nd round heart control, denies 1st or 2nd round diam control
(4) Void clubs, promises at least 2nd round diam control (else 4♠)
(5) Cuebid; 1st+2nd round heart control, which from responder's hand must be void
(6) Cuebid; ♥A; implies good trumps (else 5NT) and ♦A (else 6♠, cannot be grand)
(7) Opener knows ♥A, ♦A, ♣void, ♠KQxx or Kxxxx at worst
Note that the 4♥ cue promises a suitable hand for slam, responder's 5♣ call is fairly automatic in this sequence. The auction might be even easier playing turbo, where 5♣ would guarantee an odd number of keycards in addition to the club void, but opener can work out all the important cards by the time he bids the grand in any case.
Also note that when responder makes the grand slam try via 6♥, he knows that opener has no hearts and no ace or king of diamonds, yet still judges his hand suitable for slam. If opener lacks the spade ace, then virtually all his points must be in clubs (and his hand must be minimum) and he wouldn't have even cued 4♥. So responder can almost bid the grand here, but is afraid of something like Axxxxx - Qxx AKxx opposite. The 6♥ cuebid (denying ♦AK and showing the ♥A) helps opener evaluate that the actual hand is worth a grand bid whereas the example hand given is not quite enough.
a.k.a. Appeal Without Merit
#10
Posted 2007-January-30, 17:42
Playing at the club as we both know all too well, you're bound to get a reasonable score for being in small slam.
Playing limited conventions I can easily see a J2NT start (keep in mind that many at the club in question are not versed in splinters).
1S - 2NT
Now you must decide if you're bidding 4C as 2nd suit or 3H to show the void. Talk about confusing (I for one bid 4C but at Pat's.....3H probably hits the table to avoid the confusion on whether 4C is side suit or void showing with most players).
1S - 2NT
3H* (shortage) - 4D
Now you owe pard a repeat heart bid to show the void and better than average values.
1S - 2NT
3H* - 4D
4H - 5C
6C - 6D
7S
Maybe this auction might happen with some of the club regulars.
Mike, for clarification, for GSF I do play something rather non-standard.
#11
Posted 2007-January-30, 18:22
kenrexford, on Jan 31 2007, 01:21 AM, said:
2NT (fit-showing, 4+)
3♣ (unbalanced, non-minimum)
3♦ (where's the stiff?)
3♥ (in the other major, hearts)
3♠ (cue, two top spade honors)
3NT (serious)
4♣ (club control -- known by Opener to be a stiff/void)
Opener should probably take over now.
4NT (1430)
6♣ (three plus a void in clubs)
This looks like 12 easy tricks, but Opener needs something more.
6♥ (a 6-level bid in the short suit? Must be LTTC)
7♠.
This auction isn't bad, however opener does take a somewhat rosy and luck view by using RKCB. He has shown a non-minimum PLUS a serious slam try, so I don't see why responder can't have ♠KQJ and ♥AK ♦Q as his only high cards up to 4♣.
Even assuming a diamond control, opener would be somewhat badly placed after hearing a reply of 2 keycards plus queen - is it ♠KQ ♥A ♦K or ♠KQ ♥Q ♦AK?
#12
Posted 2007-January-30, 18:33
mikeh, on Jan 31 2007, 12:11 AM, said:
Using a basic 2/1 style:
1♠ 2♦
2♠ 3♠:
Hmm, I think I wouldn't sell this hand as a minimum - having AAK plus 6520 with tolerance for partner's suit looks like extras to me. Does a direct 3♣ promise more in high-card strength for you?
#13
Posted 2007-January-30, 19:15
cherdano, on Jan 30 2007, 07:33 PM, said:
mikeh, on Jan 31 2007, 12:11 AM, said:
Using a basic 2/1 style:
1♠ 2♦
2♠ 3♠:
Hmm, I think I wouldn't sell this hand as a minimum - having AAK plus 6520 with tolerance for partner's suit looks like extras to me. Does a direct 3♣ promise more in high-card strength for you?
Yes. I think that those who bid 3♣ here are at a serious disadvantage. The problem is that responder is so wide-range... and he may need to make a go-no go decision about whether to force beyond 3N on hands that belong in slam opposite a 'real' high-level reverse, as 3♣ is traditionally described but which have no right to go higher if opener is this weak.
So he ends up having to bid 3N on many hands on which he should, opposite a 16 count, be going higher... and it does no good to say, well, opener can move over 3N then... because responder may have stretched the 2♦ response and have bid 3N on a minimum that has no fit and no safety at the 4 level. It is one of the major draawbacks of 2/1: how do 15-16 point hands bid opposite 15-16 point hands: all too often we see decent slams missed... or, when a pair tries to overcome this, we see silly 5-level contracts.
Preserving the integrity of the high-level reverse minimizes these issues, at the cost of creating or magnifying others. I know which I prefer
BTW, 2♠ does not show a minimum... it could be a huge hand... but if responder bids a forcing 2N, as he often will, now my 3♣ says that I lack the significant extras needed to have bid 3♣ over 2♦ (or that I am 6=4 in the blacks, stength undefined).... look at the 'new system' thread in the non-natural forum and you will see that others also recognize that 2/1 forces all kinds of contortions on one.
#14
Posted 2007-January-30, 19:48
1s=2nt
3h=3s
4d=4h
5c=5d
5nt?=7s
2nt=Bergen version of Jacoby(stronger often 14+)
3h=void somewhere
3s=where?
4d=H
4h=cue
5c=cue
5d=cue
5nt?=grand try
Can understand if we only get to 6spades.
#15
Posted 2007-January-30, 19:54
#16
Posted 2007-January-30, 20:07
(1) If partner has a diamond singleton or void it's probably good news. If partner has a diamond holding like Qxx this is not particularly good. Bidding 2♦ initially will cause partner to up-evaluate the Qxx holding and down-evaluate shortage. It will also make it hard to convince partner we have so many trumps, since "2♦ then raise spades" is the normal procedure with a strong diamond suit and three spades.
(2) This hand is essentially a bunch of trumps, some controls, and a void. It will probably be easier to describe our hand to partner than to try to listen to partner's description. Starting with Jacoby here seems like kind of a distortion -- if partner has no shortage and xxx(x) clubs we could easily be on for slam whereas if partner has no shortage and KQx clubs we probably have nothing, and this will be hard to find out (or to convince partner of the void) after Jacoby 2NT.
(3) Assuming 4♣ is a splinter, what's the incentive not to use it? We have plenty of trumps and very short clubs, and no particularly strong suit. Note that most hands with a void in clubs will include a five-card side suit (okay except 5-4-4-0 exactly and some hands with 6 spades). Do people not splinter with voids ever? What's the theory behind that?
And no one's shot down my auction yet.
a.k.a. Appeal Without Merit
#17
Posted 2007-January-30, 20:11
mikeh, on Jan 30 2007, 07:13 PM, said:
Thus how can either partner use keycard meaningfully? Say responder discovers the ♥ void.... why on earth should that tell responder that there are no ♦ losers??
Appollo's auction doesn't begin to address the ♦ issue until the 6 level, and it is far from clear that 6♦ says what he seems to want it to say.
On his auction, up to 4N, how would opener have bid Axxxx x Jxx AKxx? This is not a hand on which you want to reach even the 6 level, yet Appollo is hauling out a grand slam try.
Sorry, Appollo, I do not mean to pick on you: I think your sequence makes at least as much sense as my suggestion... maybe this hand is too difficult for standard bidding, without one player applying a generous amount of optimism.
On the way home from work I was actually thinking 1♠-6♠-7♠ was the simplest auction.
If my pard raised me to 6♠ I guarantee I'd bid 7 with opener's hand.
#18
Posted 2007-January-30, 20:20
I think bidding 4♣ then (assume pard signs off) 5♣ then let pard out if he signs off is OK too.
#19
Posted 2007-January-30, 20:26
#20
Posted 2007-January-30, 20:30
awm, on Jan 30 2007, 07:32 PM, said:
1♠(1) - 4♣ (2)
4♥(3) - 5♣ (4)
5♥(5) - 6♥ (6)
7♠(7)
(1) Natural
(2) Singleton or void club and 4+♠
(3) Cuebid; 1st or 2nd round heart control, denies 1st or 2nd round diam control
(4) Void clubs, promises at least 2nd round diam control (else 4♠)
(5) Cuebid; 1st+2nd round heart control, which from responder's hand must be void
(6) Cuebid; ♥A; implies good trumps (else 5NT) and ♦A (else 6♠, cannot be grand)
(7) Opener knows ♥A, ♦A, ♣void, ♠KQxx or Kxxxx at worst
Note that the 4♥ cue promises a suitable hand for slam, responder's 5♣ call is fairly automatic in this sequence. The auction might be even easier playing turbo, where 5♣ would guarantee an odd number of keycards in addition to the club void, but opener can work out all the important cards by the time he bids the grand in any case.
Also note that when responder makes the grand slam try via 6♥, he knows that opener has no hearts and no ace or king of diamonds, yet still judges his hand suitable for slam. If opener lacks the spade ace, then virtually all his points must be in clubs (and his hand must be minimum) and he wouldn't have even cued 4♥. So responder can almost bid the grand here, but is afraid of something like Axxxxx - Qxx AKxx opposite. The 6♥ cuebid (denying ♦AK and showing the ♥A) helps opener evaluate that the actual hand is worth a grand bid whereas the example hand given is not quite enough.
I suspect most people would signoff in 6♠ after opener fails to show any diamond controls.
Why does responder think there isnt a loser there?
Doesnt mean signoff is right of course...just that people would do it.

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