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Determine the blame

Poll: Determine the blame (26 member(s) have cast votes)

Determine the blame

  1. Mostly East (7 votes [26.92%])

    Percentage of vote: 26.92%

  2. Mostly West (14 votes [53.85%])

    Percentage of vote: 53.85%

  3. Mostly style (5 votes [19.23%])

    Percentage of vote: 19.23%

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#1 User is offline   pclayton 

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Posted 2007-January-24, 11:50

Last board; club game.

Scoring: MP


East.....West
---- Pass
1♦.....1♠
1N.....2♣
2♠.....4♠

Game isn't impossible, but you'd rather not be there at MPs. Actual conversation:

East, "If I knew you were going to hang me, I would have passed 1♠"

West, "Why are you rebidding 1N? It shows a full opener? All I need is a decent 12 for game with my 6 losers"

Who do you side with?
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#2 User is online   mike777 

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Posted 2007-January-24, 11:57

I assume east has the long spades and hearts?
75% EAST 25% west

Prefer one spade opening if open on junk
Prefer two spade opening if r/s style.
Prefer pass of one spade if west opens the bidding in either style.
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#3 User is offline   FrancesHinden 

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Posted 2007-January-24, 11:58

Looks obvious to pass the 1S response.
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#4 User is offline   mikeh 

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Posted 2007-January-24, 12:07

The only reason to bid 1N is to try to steal dummy: pass is an adequate, and more accurate, description of values over 1♠.

However, east is not entirely off the hook: he needs a decent hand opposite: even 10xx A10x K10xx KQJ makes for an indifferent mp game: and opener could easily hold that...that is a clear 1n rebid.

So I think that responder should involve opener via 3♠... this should be a general values try given the auction to date.

The blame for going beyond the 1 level: opener. The blame for reaching game, rather than the 3 level, 70% opener, 30% responder.
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#5 User is offline   kenrexford 

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Posted 2007-January-24, 12:23

Unlucky hand -- not much fault. Especially if a 3rd-seat 1NT is 14-16...

Even if not, I see no particular reason why this auction screams for passing 1♠ at matchpoints. It looks like a notrump hand. If the expected range is 11-14, which most play, then why not bid 1NT with 4333 pattern, tenaces everwhere except spades?

Responder has a near-opener. So, he checks back. Finding the nine-card fit, he might wonder why partner did not pass 1♠. However, his spade suit has great body, his side heart suit probably has contribution, and he has a six-loser hand at worst.

Sure, the hands fit horribly. But, I cannot work this out easily.

If anyone erred, it seems that the best action after 2♠ might be 3♥ as an unbalanced game try. Now, the KJ-K10 looks horrible.
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#6 User is offline   the hog 

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Posted 2007-January-24, 16:38

I would pass 1S, but I'd also like to change the checkback method to 2 way checkback. I also think Ken's suggestion of 3H is a good idea.
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#7 Guest_Jlall_*

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Posted 2007-January-24, 19:09

west 100 %. East did not hang him, he has a great hand and knows partner voluntarily bid over 1S with 3 spades.
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#8 User is offline   jdeegan 

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Posted 2007-January-24, 19:20

:lol: West 100%. The first really egregious blunder should get all the blame imho. I love to open shapeless 10 counts third seat, esp. NV. But, never,never, never take a rebid with this hand in an uncontested auction. This would be a psyche. A bad psyche at that, since you are in a great spot. You may not win any given board, but over the long haul I have been well over 50% at MP's and plus IMPs on such auctions.

By the way, East might have opened a weak two bid, but with four cards in the other major, most authorities discourage that. It's also a little weak for a one bid opener in most systems.
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#9 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2007-January-24, 19:47

I don't think anyone is guilty here. Make West's ♣KJx into ♣Axx and we'd all want to be in game, while the auction would be the same. I suppose you could blame West for not passing 1♠ but 1NT isn't really a wrong bid, especially at matchpoints and with both opps passing (which hints at the 1♠ reply to be a max, 9-10 hcp).
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#10 User is offline   Double ! 

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Posted 2007-January-24, 21:21

Note:
for anyone who is suggesting that the west hand's bidding might be more responsible for the result on this hand, please note that the posting has the west hand to the right and the east hand on the left.

I would pass the balanced 11-count after P's 1S response. IMO, if I am going to open a subminimum hand in 3rd seat, I want to have at least 3 cards in any higher ranking suit than the one I bid so that I am able to pass partner's response and to assure partner tolerance/ 3-card support for partner's suit. Anyone for weak NTs?

DHL
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#11 User is offline   keylime 

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Posted 2007-January-25, 01:09

I'd be tempted to open the 1♠ in certain contexts...
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#12 User is offline   Echognome 

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Posted 2007-January-25, 02:09

I'm late to this discussion, but I agree with most of the others that it's West's fault. If you can get out in a known 4-3 fit, why encourage your partner. I agree with Justin's inference that once you find out West has 3 spades and chose not to pass 1♠, then you should take him for a good weak NT.

I don't understand the Hog's comments about 2-way checkback opposite a PH? Responder cannot have a GF hand, so isn't it an advantage to be able to play in 2♣ (opposite a 1♣ opening). And the puppet isn't really necessary opposite a 1♦ opening.
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#13 User is offline   keylime 

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Posted 2007-January-25, 02:11

Another thing to consider: Why checkback when you have a perfectly good 4 card heart suit to show? I personally would have loved being dropped at 2 clubs myself for the entertainment value. :lol:
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#14 User is offline   the hog 

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Posted 2007-January-25, 03:16

Echognome, on Jan 25 2007, 06:09 PM, said:

I'm late to this discussion, but I agree with most of the others that it's West's fault. If you can get out in a known 4-3 fit, why encourage your partner. I agree with Justin's inference that once you find out West has 3 spades and chose not to pass 1♠, then you should take him for a good weak NT.

I don't understand the Hog's comments about 2-way checkback opposite a PH? Responder cannot have a GF hand, so isn't it an advantage to be able to play in 2♣ (opposite a 1♣ opening). And the puppet isn't really necessary opposite a 1♦ opening.

Gnome, pd isn't a passed hand. You are the passed hand. (I must admit I would have opened 1S). Playing 2 way chbk if YOU are passed gives you more options - think about it.
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#15 User is offline   dake50 

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Posted 2007-January-25, 07:33

What does a passed hand 2S show? P-1D-/ 2S??
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#16 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2007-January-25, 07:49

This may be my puritanism, but I wouldnt have opened with that "prime 11 count" 3343 hand (be it 3rd seat)... And I would have opened 1 or 2 spades with West's hand... It seems far less palatable to pass with that nice 6-4 than to open with that yucky one... So for me it's a matter of style I guess...
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#17 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2007-January-25, 09:18

The auction looks as if both hands are equally strong, yet East has an LTC of 6.5 and West of 8.5.
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#18 User is offline   Apollo81 

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Posted 2007-January-25, 14:56

Phil, when you post you should orient the hand so that the left-hand side is West and the right-hand side is East.

Many of the replies are blaming West when they clearly meant East.

edit: OK it looks like you posted it right after all, but the auction is mislabelled
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#19 User is offline   HeartA 

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Posted 2007-January-25, 22:46

I voted for "Mostly East" (the 1D opener). With 11 count, 4-3-3-3 shape (and no honor in pd's suit), to pass 1S is the most adquate action. Having said that, to rebid 1NT is not completely wrong.
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#20 User is offline   brianshark 

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Posted 2007-January-26, 03:31

I don't mind so much the 1NT rebid... it's not such a bad place to play with the great texture. It's worth a 12 point hand for NT purposes. The problem is if it ends up playing in a suit.

TBH, I don't think Responder should jump to game, he should invite. Most weak 1NT hands have around 9 losers, which is too much opposite an 6 loser hand. I'd give 75% of the blame to responder.
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