[Wackojack]

Scoring: MP

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Bidding at yesterdays Swiss pairs. I was west
- 1♠
2♦- 2♥
2NT- 3♠
3NT- pass

A club was led and I quickly claimed 12 tricks for a very good MP score. Afterwards my partner was critical of my bidding. Imp scoring I would have bid my clubs so the bidding would have gone:
- 1♠
2♦- 2♥
3♣- 3♠
4♣-

I don't know how we would have gone next and whether or not we would have reached 6♣ or 6♠. As the NS cards lie, 6♠ goes off on a singleton club lead which would have been obvious had east supported clubs.

Particularly since finding east with the right cards for a club slam after showing spades and hearts is problematic, isn't it easier and much more likely to get a good match point score by giving away less information to the opponents? Opinions please?

[awm]

It seems to me that the decision is not so much yours as your partner's. Of course, I'm not a great proponent of "4th suit natural in 2/1 auctions" but in any case it seems like partner could have better shown his hand by bidding 3♣ over your 2NT. At this point you could continue on to 6♣ by a variety of methods.

Now this is not to say that partner's auction is not correct. After 1♠-2♦-2♥-2NT, he knows that a club lead is likely to be favorable for your side. After all, you have promised some club cards and he has QJT. The concern is much more likely to be diamonds or hearts. So there is some advantage to avoiding telling the opponents about his diamond shortage so as to improve the odds of the club lead. But having made this choice, I'd put it on partner that you missed the slam.

[1eyedjack]

There is an argument that if you do not intend to show both suits, then to respond 2C rather than 2D on the first occasion maximises your chances of finding a 5-4 fit in a minor. Opener can be relied upon to rebid 2D with 4 of them, or raise Clubs with 4 of them, but he might not be relied upon to bid Clubs if you respond 2D.

Were you to respond 2C on this hand then you probably sail into 6C rather more comfortably, despite that there is in fact no 5-4 minor suit fit to be had, but there is a degree of luck involved in that outcome: Had both of your minor suits been reversed, 6D would have been the spot but just as likely to be missed following a 2C response (given that opener would still not have had a 4 card minor anywhere) as in the hands and auction as presented.

I assume that 2D was GF, else West is rather too strong for a NF 2N rebid. That being the case I also would place the bulk of the blame on East. West has very little to spare, on an apparently misfitting hand (despite the value of the singleton Spade Queen).

[inquiry]

Not that it will help decide how to end up in the proper slam, I am going to rebid spades before I bid that four card heart suit.... there is too much difference between AKJT95 and KJxx to not rebid spades first. Just a thought...

[Wackojack]

Thanks for the thoughts, though I wasn't looking for blame in missing the club slam. The point of the post was the different objectives for imp and match point scoring. I judged that a club slam was unlikely to be made by the vast majority of the field. So I bid to try and get a better score than them, and did. In retrospect, I doubt that we would have got to the club slam with any degree of confidence had this been imp scoring. After 1s-2d-2h-3c-3s-4c or 1s-2d-2s-3c-3h-4c we might well have still have ended up in a spade contract, possibly game, possibly slam according to how we felt. So with that in mind was my suppression of the club suit justified or am I being a result merchant?

btw we were playing 2/1GF

[mcphee]

I would not elect to play 3NT at pairs even though it may be the winning spot. Not reaching 6C was sad which can only be termed a unilateral decision from the minor suited hand. If 3N was the place to play, surely bidding a second 5 bagger will not stop you from reaching that strain. Once again should S have simply taken the time to TELL partner something of value the opportunity to reach 6C is very strong and likely.

Consider this.
1S 2D
2H 3C
3S 3N
4C

After the N hand has been able to adequately explain the nature of their hand it is easy for S to continue towards slam. it is difficult to consider a hand that will offer no chance to make 6. Even 6S is good, if not a bit unlucky.

What does the S hand have to gain failing to mention C?

[whereagles]

Dump pard. You got a good score and he still haggles?