[Cascade]

Just to swim a little against the tide ...

We play responder's reverse is just a one-round force. As such after a 2/1 it does not promise any extra values.

Looking through the sayc notes that I have it is not clear to me that responder's reverse is GF in that system:

" A new suit response (other than after a 1NT rebid by opener) is a one-round force (but not forcing to game)."

The 1NT rebid auctions hinted at there are made more explicit in those notes

"Second round forcing bids following a 1NT rebid by opener: A reverse or jump shift into a new suit is a game force."

but there is nothing to suggest that a reverse is FG.

"If responder initially bids a new suit at the two level, the same rules apply EXCEPT that a subsequent jump raise of opener's first suit to the THREE LEVEL is game forcing (responder should make a limit raise directly over the opening with 10-12 points and at least three-card support)"

[helene_t]

Richard said it all, except that maybe he should have clarriified what a "swan" is.

Anyway, this hand is too weak for 2♣ playing any post-1960 bidding system so it really doesn't matter what system you play. 1NT followed by 3♣, even in Acol.

[boris3161]

Playing acol, I wouldn't feel comfortable to bit 1nt with a four card spade suit. So, the decision for me is between 1♠ and 2♣ - clearly 2♣ describes my hand better so that is what I would bid. If my partner responds with ♦ or rebids ♥, I am probably not strong enough to show my spades. C'est la vie.

[ArcLight]

1♥ - 1NT
X - 3♣

The X = a bid

Its not a jump over the 2nd bid, its a jump over the first bid.

Hence I wrote "Delayed" jump

[MQs]

I think I would pas at start (as jocdelevat wrote). Looks easy to describe hand IF reopened by opps (by their bids too) or go defence maybe. The problem with that "IF" I definitely need the final answer.

With forcing NT I agree wih 1♥-1NT-2♦/♥-3♣

In Polish club seems easy: 1♥-2♣-2♦/♥-3♣

[jocdelevat]

I think problem is getting old and I'm still curios whats the corect biding.

Thank you all

[P_Marlowe]

awm, on Nov 9 2006, 07:27 PM, said:

How can the lowest possible call in a forcing auction be a reverse? My impression remains that a reverse is a bid beyond the cheapest available call in your first-bid suit. Since after 1♥-2♣-2♥, the cheapest possible call in responder's first bid suit is 3♣, and 2♠ is a lower call, it's not a reverse.

Of course, whether 2♠ is a reverse and whether it shows extras/is forcing are totally different questions. It's fairly standard that 2♠ here is forcing to game.

Hi,

it may play a important role, where you learned
to play and which system.
I learned to play Acol in Ireland, and 2C did not
promise a rebid, i.e. reponder could have passed 2H.
Hence the 2S bid by responder was a free bid and
it forced opener to give preference a level higher.

2S was called reverse by responder.
If one talks about a reverse bid, one talks ussually about
openers 2nd bid.

With kind regards
Marlowe

[dank]

1NT is automatic. I bid clubs at my next turn over 2-red, bid 3C over 2S planning to raise spades next.

The problem with responding 1S to 1H is that you bury your KQTxxxx to show your Qxxx, and most of the time 4S is a good contract partner will bid them 1H-1N-2S.