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hi 2/1 question possibly does not make any difference

#1 User is offline   sceptic 

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Posted 2006-November-09, 15:51


Scoring: IMP


West North East South

 -     1    Pass  1
 Pass  3    Pass  3
 4    4    Pass  5
 Pass  6    Dbl   7
 Pass  Pass  Dbl   Pass
 Pass  Pass  



The bid I am really interested in is norths 2nd bid

2 hearts
3 diamonds
2 diamonds
something else

name ur poison and feel free to say what you like about the biidding
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#2 User is offline   hrothgar 

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Posted 2006-November-09, 15:55

I'd rebid 2

Hand isn't good enough for a reverse or 3
Alderaan delenda est
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#3 User is offline   Walddk 

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Posted 2006-November-09, 16:02

I like 1 and 1 and that's about it. 3 is an overbid after which the wheels went off. 2 is enough. I also dislike 3, prefer 3. The contract will then be 3NT, likely 1 off on a club lead.

That's life.

After the 2 rebid, South has an invitational 3 available, and you will probably end up in the same hopeless 3NT.

Finally, how West could pass over 1 is beyond me. He didn't think he had a bid at the 2-level, but at the 4-level vulnerable he woke up all of a sudden. That's not the way I understand the game.

Roland
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#4 User is offline   EricK 

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Posted 2006-November-09, 16:04

It makes no sense to me to play a jump rebid as weaker than a reverse (since the jump rebid gives you less room to stop at a lower level), so I would never choose 3 before 2. Either the hand is strong enough for a reverse in your methods or it isn't. In SA and its derviatives, it isn't

The later bidding seems to be a series of misunderstandings with cue-bids being mistaken for genuine suits and vice versa.
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#5 User is offline   mikeh 

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Posted 2006-November-09, 16:23

Opener should, in my view, rebid a quiet 2 at his second turn.

Reverses can be played either as very strong (my preference) or as a very good 16 count or so... maybe some would reverse with AQx KJxx AJ10xx x, but that is not my style.

3 has a lower end weaker than that of a reverse, and a high end somewhere in the middle of the range of a reverse, but counting points is not the sole criterion.

I think that most players would treat a jump to 3 as denying 4. This, in theory, means that there will be hands on which opener has the values for 3 but chooses not to make the bid because he has 4s and lacks the values to reverse. This is an interesting theoretical issue, but it does not arise here, because opener lacks the strength for 3 anyway! Sure, the 1 bid bolsters the otherwise dubious K (not worth 3 points when the opening bid decision is made) but not by any huge amount. That is not to say that one ought not rebid 3 on a suit of AJ10xxx and a 15 count, but the 15 count had better be a fine 15 when the suit is weak... and AJ10xxx is weak for a jump rebid suit.

Another and useful way for North to think is whether game will likely be missed if partner passes 2. Given the relatively soft nature of his values, he probably needs partner to have a decent 10 count with no particular fit or a goodish 9 count with a partial fit, and in both cases, responder will bid again.

Look at the impact of the '3 denies a 4 card major' point: Responder's 3 now becomes a choice of strains move: inviting 3N should opener stop s, or 4 should opener have a hand that suggests a 3 bid, while preserving the chances of a contract.

Understood in this way, opener should be bidding 3N, not 4. 3N is an overbid, but only because opener doesn't hold a 3 bid to start with.

4 is an 'impossible' bid from responder's perspective: altho I can see making that bid with say Kx AQx AK109xx xx.... to me that would make sense: I cannot bid 3N, nor 3 and while 4 must be safe, in the sense that it is a bid partner could foresee, 3 does not actually deny 4+s, and maybe this hand will play well in a moysian or 5: give partner Axxxx Kxxx Qx xx and I like 4 as a matchpoint spot and make the KJxx and I even like it as an imp spot.

Opener showed a complete lack of appreciation for the nuances of the 5 call: he had an absolutely clear pass.

BTW, I would have to have been struck dumb and paralytic to have passed 1 as West.
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#6 Guest_Jlall_*

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Posted 2006-November-09, 16:40

2D...not good enough for a reverse.
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#7 User is offline   HeartA 

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Posted 2006-November-09, 16:49

EricK, on Nov 9 2006, 05:04 PM, said:

It makes no sense to me to play a jump rebid as weaker than a reverse (since the jump rebid gives you less room to stop at a lower level), so I would never choose 3 before 2.

Completely agree. Jump to 3 is wrose than 2 (I don't mean the hand is good enough for 2H. It is NOT). It not only uses more space, but also distorted the shape.
Senshu
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#8 User is offline   mike777 

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Posted 2006-November-09, 17:04

Jlall, on Nov 9 2006, 05:40 PM, said:

2D...not good enough for a reverse.

Agree as many others have said.

With all of that said, this is a tough hand for me. Playing lightish openings, South looks like she has a pass of 2D to me. I may be missing game on this one.

Geez and you bid it to 7D? B)

For some really wierd bidding try:

1nt=2h
2s=3nt

May make on a heart lead?
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#9 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2006-November-10, 03:49

If you open light, as in by today's standards, I believe North IS worth a reverse or 3. The reverse is obviously preferrable.

What is also obvious is that South took 3 as a way stronger bid.
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#10 User is offline   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2006-November-10, 04:02

Hi,

2D is certainly the best bid.

Value of the King of spade is unclear

Exchange the King of spade with
a small spade, adding the King
of Diamonds, 3D would be fine.

If you had the KIng of hearts instead
2H would be fine.

4H is fine, but you should pass 5D,
you already told partner about your 4
card heart suit, he was not interested.

And holding a min. 3D bid, you should
respect partners sign of.

It can be argued, that 4D instead of 3H
from your partner is a better bid, it sets
trumps and starts a cue bidding seq.
But it depends to a large degree on the min.
requirements for a 3D call, if responder
should look for slam or has still to investigate
3NT.

With kind regards
Marlowe

PS: I will not write, what I think about the 4C bid
and the double from East.
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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#11 User is offline   Codo 

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Posted 2006-November-10, 04:29

I am quite surprised, that people can think about 3 here (or even bid it!).
This bid is simply not bridge for me.
If you are strong enough for a strong move, 2 stands out a mile.

It depends on the system, whether this hand has the strength for a reverse. In limited systems like strong club or even in polish club, it is strong enough. But if you play 2/1 this is not even close to a reverse, as you already promised a sound opener.
Kind Regards

Roland


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#12 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2006-November-10, 05:01

As others have said, it doesn't make much sense to play 3 as weaker than 2. Yet this happens to be a common treatment. So 3 is more awkward than it's incorrect.

2 is a practical rebid if you have the agreement that
1-1
2-2
3*
is forcing. This is more or less standard here in NL, not sure about the rest of the World. Without firm agreements about this, I would rebid 2 with the North hand. I know it's an over-bid but it makes the rest of the auction easier.

South's 3 bid is ok, what else can he do. It's not uncommon for this to be a 3-card. Of course, this deal shows how it can go wrong and if you have a regular partner that likes to discuss bidding theory, you should make agreements about this. Some artificial rebid by North (2 and 2NT are under-loaded in standard methods so you can put some difficult hands into those) are among the options.

North's 4 is acceptable but I prefer a forcing pass. If south can double 4, North is happy to leave it in.

South's 5 is fine. It shows that he has a slam-try in diamonds and probably only 3 (or maybe 4 bad) hearts. North obviously did not understand this, since he has a clear-cut pass of 5. But even if he thinks that 3 guarantees a 4-card and/or that 5 was a cue for hearts (both assumptions are reasonable although I happen to disagree), he should not bid 6. 5 is enough since he already over-stated his values with his 3 rebid.

Finally, West must be a novice.
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#13 User is offline   Wackojack 

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Posted 2006-November-10, 05:48

mikeh, on Nov 9 2006, 05:23 PM, said:

Reverses can be played either as very strong (my preference) or as  a very good 16 count or so... maybe some would reverse with AQx KJxx AJ10xx x, but that is not my style.


I don't see any problem in reversing with AQx,KJxx,AJ10xx, x. After all give partner only KJxxx,xxx,Kx,xxx and there is a good play for game. otoh if you exchange opener's black suits, a reverse into 2 is a no-no.

Back to basics: A reverse requires extra strength to cater for partner's possible preference at the 3-level. In the sequence 1-1-2, responder can make weak sign-offs of 2, 2NT (assuming no gadgets here) and 3. It follows that if opener has 6 diamonds and 4 hearts, the strength required to reverse cannot be greater than to jump. So after 1-1, a jump to 3 must NOT be be made holding 4 hearts. This is quite apart from the problem that arises after 1-1-3-3. Where 3 is a no trump probe on a 3 card suit not able to bid 3NT because clubs are not stopped.

As for south actual 15 HCP hand. The singleton K and not very good playing strength in diamonds make a 2 reverse very pushy. Give partner a hand like Axxx, xxx, Kx, Q10xx and this bid might be the only way to get to a chancy 3NT, but I wouldn't bet on it. So rebid 2
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#14 User is offline   bearmum 

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Posted 2006-November-10, 06:43

sceptic, on Nov 10 2006, 07:51 AM, said:


Dealer: North
Vul: EW
Scoring: IMP
K
QJ87
AJT642
A5
QT864
 
K5
KQJT87
92
AT9653
83
942
AJ753
K42
Q97
63
 


West  North East  South

 -     1    Pass  1
 Pass  3    Pass  3
 4    4    Pass  5
 Pass  6    Dbl   7
 Pass  Pass  Dbl   Pass
 Pass  Pass  



The bid I am really interested in is norths 2nd bid

2 hearts
3 diamonds
2 diamonds
something else

name ur poison and feel free to say what you like about the biidding

1. N is NOWHERE near strong enough for the 3 bid ( P has denied 11+ points with his 1 bid (in 2/1 as I play it) so NO Game force

2. BUT as P has bid 3 why does S not rebid his s? NF as didn't bid 1NT forcing the first time :)
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#15 User is offline   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2006-November-10, 06:55

bearmum, on Nov 10 2006, 07:43 AM, said:

<snip>
2. BUT as P has bid 3 why does S not rebid his s? NF as didn't bid 1NT forcing the first time :)
<snip>

Hi,

however you play it, but opposite a standard 3D,
you want to reach game, i.e. a NF bid is no option.
Besides, it is open to discussion, if 3S is really NF.

With kind regards
Marlowe
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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#16 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2006-November-10, 07:48

P_Marlowe, on Nov 10 2006, 02:55 PM, said:

Besides, it is open to discussion, if 3S is really NF.

I don't think so. I think every expert would say it's forcing.
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#17 User is offline   mike777 

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Posted 2006-November-10, 08:40

Another huge problem is 1 minor=1major=3minor can have such a huge range and mean so many things esp. if you play lightish openings. I have found, for me, it really helps to play it really as sort of sayc standardish(16-17?) and give up the extra ranges.
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#18 User is offline   mikeh 

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Posted 2006-November-10, 09:10

bearmum, on Nov 10 2006, 07:43 AM, said:

1. N is NOWHERE near strong enough for the 3 bid ( P has denied 11+ points with his 1 bid (in 2/1 as I play it) so NO Game force

2. BUT as P has bid 3 why does S not rebid his s?  NF as didn't bid 1NT forcing the first time  :P

If 1 denied 11+ points, you are NOT playing 2/1 GF. I am not sure what your method should be called, but it is definitely nothng like 2/1. Nor is 1N a forcing response to 1minor in 2/1.
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#19 User is offline   bid_em_up 

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Posted 2006-November-10, 11:41

1st choice of rebid by N: 2
2nd choice of rebid by N: 2
3rd choice of rebid by N: 2

A distance 4th choice: 2....if you're going to lie about the strength of the hand, at least show the hand pattern.

:P
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#20 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2006-November-10, 13:50

bid_em_up, on Nov 10 2006, 05:41 PM, said:

1st choice of rebid by N: 2
2nd choice of rebid by N: 2
3rd choice of rebid by N: 2

A distance 4th choice: 2....if you're going to lie about the strength of the hand, at least show the hand pattern.

:)

I like to classify opening hands as follows:

12-14: min
15-17: med
18-20: max
21+: open 2

In this scheme, a reverse shows a med or max hand. The hand in question, with 15 hcp, classifies as a "med", so it's just barely worth a reverse.

So.. it's only a lie about strength if you classify openers differently. I often see that players in the US tend to widen the borders, as in

12-15: min
16-19: med
20-23: max

In this classification, the hand is just barely NOT worth a reverse.
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