[pbleighton]

Assume you are playing 2/1 responses as 10(9)+, and forcing, and you are opening light (<11).

1. I know that many play 1M-2x-2M is NF, 5+ cards, and you can stop in 2M (I play this in a weak NT, fairly light opening 5cM system). If you play this, what about rebids cheaper than 2M, such as 1S-2C-2D? Do people play this as forcing (or are there different opinions)?

2. If 1S-2C-2D is forcing, do you commonly bypass a diamond suit to convey a minimum by rebidding 2S?

3. Is 1M-2x-2M-2NT invitational, showing more than 10 but less than GF (say 12-bad 14), or is it to play?

4. Is 1M-2m-3m NF? If so, what do you do with a strong hand with good support for partner's minor?

5. Is 1M-2m-something-3m NF or forcing? If so, what do you do with the other hand?

TIA,

Peter

[MickyB]

1. The old fashioned way was to play 1♠:2♣, 2♦ as NF, but now the vast majority of tournament players play 2♣ as forcing to at least 2♠.

2. No, bid your shape out. You can show a minimum by passing partner's next bid (unless he uses 4th suit forcing).

3. 1M:2X, 2M:2N is invitational, a dead minimum will pass 2M.

4. Yup, 1M:2m, 3m is NF. With extras, either raise to 4m, splinter, or bid a slightly off-shape 2N. I quite like 1M:2m, 3N as a NF raise of the minor that is unsuitable for any other bid.

5. 1M:2m, blah:3m is invitational. If opener has rebid in a new suit, responder can bid the 4th suit on the GF hand; If opener has rebid his own suit, responder has to invent a second suit.

[P_Marlowe]

Hi,

1M is a 4 card mayor opening, weak NT?

1) The way I learned Acol: 2D is forcing (from Klingers books),
but I also learned, that you should not be surprised, if it gets
passed out
It makes certainly sense, to play it as forcing.
2) no, I bid my shape
3) inv. strength, to play makes no sense, opener can still
hold 14/15HCP
4) yes, it is non forcing
If opener has a great hand, he has a problem
You could bid 4m, playing MP, that is certainly not best, but playing
IMP, who care
The other minor on the 3 level could be a 3 carder, and than you
quite often bid a forcing 2NT.
5) Yes, responders rebid is nonforcing.

With kind regards
Marlowe

PS: Playing Acol, you have a problem to create a forcing seq. on the 3 level,
thats the price you pay, to play light openers and light 2/1 responses.

[badderzboy]

pbleighton, on Oct 13 2006, 02:46 PM, said:

Assume you are playing 2/1 responses as 10(9)+, and forcing, and you are opening light (<11).

1. I know that many play 1M-2x-2M is NF, 5+ cards, and you can stop in 2M (I play this in a weak NT, fairly light opening 5cM system). If you play this, what about rebids cheaper than 2M, such as 1S-2C-2D? Do people play this as forcing (or are there different opinions)?

2. If 1S-2C-2D is forcing, do you commonly bypass a diamond suit to convey a minimum by rebidding 2S?

3. Is 1M-2x-2M-2NT invitational, showing more than 10 but less than GF (say 12-bad 14), or is it to play?

4. Is 1M-2m-3m NF? If so, what do you do with a strong hand with good support for partner's minor?

5. Is 1M-2m-something-3m NF or forcing? If so, what do you do with the other hand?

TIA,

Peter

I play the bids as following :-
2/1 shows 10+pts (or 9+ with a good 5 card suit / 8+ with a good 6 card suit)

1. Strictly non-forcing - shows 5+♠s,4+♦s and 11-14 pts and asks for suit preference if minimum.

2. n/a

3. Yes 1M-2x-2M-2NT is invitational showing a 10-13pt hand with 1 or fewer of the bid major.

4. 1M-2m-3m NF courtesy raise shows 5+M 4+m and weak hand so up to 2m bidder to bid again or pass

5. 1M-2m-2X-3m NF long m with minimum response no tolerance for other suits.
With the other version go via 4th suit.

Steve

[EricK]

1. I play this as forcing.

2. I do sometimes bypass a 4 card suit to rebid a 6 card major when weak. I would always bid second suit with just 5 in the first

3. Invitational. If you play an immediate 2NT as conventional (I play it as Inv+ with support) then you need a way to show the balanced invite.

4. This is NF, but partner will often bid on as there is clearly nearly enough for game, so missing game is rare in practice. With strong hands you can rebid NT or 4m or splinter. Not ideal at MP where 3N often outscores 5m. It may be best at MP if playing this method to agree that 4N always suggests a place to play once a minor is agreed (note that if 4N is going down but 5m is making then you don't mind playing in 5m even at MP)

5. This is NF. Either make a SJS on the first round or bid FSF to force.

[jikl]

The way I remember is that the term "False preference" comes up quite a bit.

1♠ - 2♣ - 2♦ - ?

2♥ = FSF to game
2♠ = Minimum, not enough for 2NT (10-11), may still have 4♦ but not enough for 3♦ (10-12), not enough for 3♣ which is still trying for 3NT opposite a 13-15ish hand.

Sean

[FrancesHinden]

1. Traditionally this was non/forcing, but in common with most people today I play it is forcing.

2. 2D is forcing, but shows no more than a miimum. Bypassing 2D to rebid 2M on a minimum is a perverse way to try and miss your best fit. As you can stop in 2M anyway, why not bid your minor first?

3. 2NT is invitational, about a good 10 to 12. A 13 count traditionally drives game. (Acol ´light openers´ are only made on distributional hands with good playing strength, not random balanced 10 counts)

4. Yes, NF. With a good hand bid something else.
5. Non forcing. With a good hand bid something else (what else depends on the hand and the auction so far)

4 & 5 are not the best parts of this style, and in my regular partnership we've added some bits of system here. A fairly common agreement is to play 1M-2m-2NT as 15+ FG, which frees up 3NT. We play 1M-2m-3NT as 5422 with 4-card support for partner 15-17. We've also added all sorts of artificiality after 1M-2m but it's mainly a nice-to-have rather than absolutely necessary.

[pbleighton]

Thanks all for the replies.

Peter

[Cascade]

pbleighton, on Oct 14 2006, 01:46 AM, said:

Assume you are playing 2/1 responses as 10(9)+, and forcing, and you are opening light (<11).

1. I know that many play 1M-2x-2M is NF, 5+ cards, and you can stop in 2M (I play this in a weak NT, fairly light opening 5cM system). If you play this, what about rebids cheaper than 2M, such as 1S-2C-2D? Do people play this as forcing (or are there different opinions)?

I play this as forcing. A jump to 3D would be a splinter agreeing clubs.

Quote

2. If 1S-2C-2D is forcing, do you commonly bypass a diamond suit to convey a minimum by rebidding 2S?

I would only bypass diamonds with six spades. With six spades I would only not bypass diamonds with one of the following hands:

1. Poor spades

2. Five diamonds

3. Extra values

Quote

3. Is 1M-2x-2M-2NT invitational, showing more than 10 but less than GF (say 12-bad 14), or is it to play?

Neither. I play 2NT is an artificial GF. This has proved to be one of the most useful conventions we have added to our system. It allows responder to create a force with any hand that was intending to raise spades or rebid his own suit.

A new suit is also forcing and we prefer to bid a natural new suit so 2NT usually denies a second suit.

Quote

4. Is 1M-2m-3m NF?  If so, what do you do with a strong hand with good support for partner's minor?

Yes this is NF.

With extra values and support we use the following scheme:

Jump new suit - splinter raise

3NT - 14-16 no singleton

4m - 17+ no singleton

Quote

5. Is 1M-2m-something-3m NF or forcing?  If so, what do you do with the other hand?

There are several variations:

1.

1S 2C; 2D 3C
1S 2C; 2H 3C
1S 2D; 2H 3D
1H 2C; 2D 3C

All of these are NF

With a stronger hand we can jump to 4m or use 4th suit forcing

2.

1M 2m; 2M 3m

This is NF (as is 1S 2H; 2S 3H)

With a stronger hand we use our forcing 2NT.

3. In any other auction 3m would be forcing. In all cases I think a GF has been created before 3m.

a/ 1M 2m; 2NT 3m - 2NT is 15-17 and creates a GF

b/ 1H 2m; 2S 3m - 2S is a reverse (16+) and creates a GF

c/ 1M 2D; 3C 3D - 3C shows extras and creates a GF

also d/ 1S 2H; 2NT 3H is forcing similar to a/

and e/ 1S 2H; 3m 3H is forcing similar to c/