Walddk, on Oct 11 2006, 06:11 PM, said:
Her hand was
♠ J76
♥ J10
♦ 95432
♣ J83
North passed the double by West in tempo. I don't blame her for not finding the much better spot in 4♦. South could have all sorts of reasons for blasting 3NT at that point.
Roland
Which reasons could South have for passing first and blasting to 3 NT later if she does not have the actual hand? (A strong take out of Spades?)
After all from her bidding so far, she declined:
- all weak hands (pass now)
-strong balanced hands (2 NT first bid)
- a take out of Hearts (X now)
- a long minor (Bidding first round or now)
-a two suiter (Bidding leaping michaels early or 2 NT now)
So what else could she have as her hand?
I`m quite sure, that I had not found this at the table (not as South and never as North), so I won´t blame North at all, but I cannot see many hands, which South could have bid this way.
SO which reason could south have to blast to 3 NT in your view?