Is this forcing?
#1
Posted 2006-July-12, 16:06
(P) - 1♣ - (Dbl) - Rdbl
(1♦) - P - (P) - 1♥
(P) - ?
Are you in a forced position or not? And if you don't feel that you are, do you still bid with:
AK6
KQ
9763
J1085
#2
Posted 2006-July-12, 16:19
Partner can bid 2♦ now if he wants more info. Then I will bid 2♥.
Roland
#4
Posted 2006-July-12, 16:26
DHL
#5
Posted 2006-July-12, 16:46
Which always makes me wonder what a 2♥ call means in the same sequence.
#6
Posted 2006-July-12, 16:53
#7
Posted 2006-July-12, 17:29
#8
Posted 2006-July-12, 17:45
#11
Posted 2006-July-12, 20:25
#12
Posted 2006-July-13, 01:25
luke warm, on Jul 13 2006, 01:29 AM, said:
Jimmy, I think you misread the auction.
#13
Posted 2006-July-13, 01:44
yes 1H is forcing, and so would
a direct 1H.
In the seq. in question, I would
not say, that 1H is game forcing,
but it is forcing.
My bid: 2D, no clear direction.
With kind regards
Marlowe
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
#14
Posted 2006-July-13, 01:50
Walddk, on Jul 12 2006, 10:19 PM, said:
this comes from Roland?
*shock* *awe* *faint*
#15
Posted 2006-July-13, 09:15
cherdano, on Jul 13 2006, 02:25 AM, said:
luke warm, on Jul 13 2006, 01:29 AM, said:
Jimmy, I think you misread the auction.
maybe i did, but i've always felt that a redouble shows 10+ and tends to deny a fit for partner's suit... it sets up a focing pass auction, forcing until they are doubled or we play the hand...
(p) 1C (x) xx
(1D) p* (p) 1H**
*=i can't double 1D, what do you want to do?
**=i can't (or don't want to) x 1D either, i have no spade support to speak of, but i do have 4+ hearts and 10-12 hcp
in any case, why would 1H be forcing there? give opener
AQJx xxx x KQxxx ... what should he bid? anyway, because of the preponderence of 'forcing' thoughts, from now on i'll play the bid as forcing
#16
Posted 2006-July-14, 08:11
I had opened 1 Diamond with the North hand and rebid 2 Club now.
In the given case, I had bid 2 ♦ asking for a stopper.
Roland
Sanity Check: Failure (Fluffy)
More system is not the answer...
#17
Posted 2006-July-14, 10:57
#18
Posted 2006-July-14, 12:27
whereagles, on Jul 13 2006, 09:50 AM, said:
Walddk, on Jul 12 2006, 10:19 PM, said:
this comes from Roland?
*shock* *awe* *faint*
Nothing sensational about that. As long as there is room for partner to find out if NT is the right spot, I don't have a problem. What I do not do, however, and what you seem to have misinterpreted, is to jump to 3NT indiscriminately without having a suit covered.
Axx
xxx
AQJx
Qxx
1♦ (1♠) dble pass
1NT
That's fine with me because partner, below game, can find out if I am serious about NT. I merely show my pattern, and that's balanced.
However, with the following hand I do not jump to 3NT:
K
AQ1054
J94
KJ83
1♥ - 1♠
2♣ - 2♦
I have a feeling that you might punt 3NT. I don't; I bid 3♦.
Roland
#19
Posted 2006-July-14, 18:04
In response to the 1♥...I would bid based on the strength og my hand while painting a picture of the hand ..1NT if balanced or a suit if you have one is a winner.
Partner has yet to describe his/her hand...That bid should tell the story...
#20
Posted 2006-July-16, 18:16
Walddk, on Jul 14 2006, 06:27 PM, said:
K
AQ1054
J94
KJ83
1♥ - 1♠
2♣ - 2♦
I have a feeling that you might punt 3NT. I don't; I bid 3♦.
Actually, the textbook bid is 3♦. With a pet pard I'd certainly try that most of the time. However, with a not-so-hot pard 3NT sure has a couple of priceless virtues.......

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