kfgauss, on Jun 22 2006, 12:59 PM, said:
bid_em_up, on Jun 22 2006, 05:33 PM, said:
whereagles, on Jun 22 2006, 09:38 AM, said:
Hannie, on Jun 22 2006, 01:55 PM, said:
whereagles, on Jun 22 2006, 08:00 AM, said:
There isn't much sense in it being a weak bid (too high a level and into a possible misfit). I'd take that as a strong 55 with a random pard. Unless, of course, it were obvious from my hand it couldn't be that

Give me a hand where you can see that partner can't be strong with 5-5?
Hum.. 17-18 hcp with 1534 and strong diamonds? Say
x
AKxxx
AKQ
Qxxx
I suspect you mean AKxxx x AKQ Qxxx (partner opened 1
♥, you bid 1
♠ & 3
♦).
But seriously, if you have this hand, you would/should bid 2
♦ as 4th suit forcing, which kinda removes it from any discussion.
Got another example?
No, this was an example of a hand where you would supposedly "know" that partner doesn't have a GF 5-5
♠+
♦ hand.
I'm not sure why partner can't have something along the lines of
AKJxx
x
J109xx
Ax
though.
Andy
The point was that in the given auction responder cannot hold the hand you initially gave. It is responder who bid 1
♠ and 3
♦. Therefore you couldnt hold x AKxxx AKQ Qxxx (you are describing openers hand).
In a Walsh style, a 4 card spade suit would be bid before a 5+ card minor suit. With game forcing values, any 5-5 hand would next bid 2
♦ (4SF) thereby creating a forcing auction and then describe from there.
The auction listed, 1H-1S-2C-3D, to the best of my recollection is, specifically reserved for 4-6+ hands w/o game forcing values.