What do you bid?
What do you bid? 2/1
#1
Posted 2006-May-20, 16:11
What do you bid?
#2
Posted 2006-May-20, 16:21
a.k.a. Appeal Without Merit
#3
Posted 2006-May-20, 16:26
On to the hand in question:
The "value" bid is 2N showing balanced hand with roughly 11 HCP. This seems like a great description of the hand. Given all the tens, nines, and eights I certainly prefer 2NT to 1NT. However, I'm worried that both majors are wide open. I have the uncomfortable feeling that NT is going to play a lot better from partner's hand. Even so, I'm not willing to bid 1M on a three card suit with a 3=3=3=4 hand.
I guess that my answer is "it depends". if 2♣ doesn't establish an absolute game force, I'm bidding 2♣. If it does, I'm bidding 2NT.
#4
Posted 2006-May-20, 16:31
Edit: thought I was a passed hand. In which case, probably 2D might be better then.
#5
Posted 2006-May-20, 16:41
This is definitely what I would do at the table, so why not at the Forum as well
I have to admit, I would like it better if more points were in the majors.
Peter
#6
Posted 2006-May-20, 17:21
NT needs to play from the other side of the table, if thats where the hand belongs.
Additionally, your values are concentrated in clubs, and 2C portrays this better than 2N will.
So many experts, not enough X cards.
#8
Posted 2006-May-21, 05:12
What is partner supposed to do with 14HCP? What about 18-19? What about 12?
For those who want to bid 1NT:
What is partner supposed to do with 14HCP? What about 12?
#9
Posted 2006-May-21, 10:14
(1) 2♣ is game force. Invitational hands with no major and no diamond fit bid 2NT (balanced) or 3♣ (long clubs).
(2) 2♣ is game force except suit rebid. Invitational hands with no major and no diamond fit bid 2NT (balanced) or 2♣ followed by 3♣ (long clubs).
In either case opener will not immediately distinguish strength on a balanced hand (2NT by opener over 1♦-2♣ is an acceptable rebid on 12-14 or 18-19) and responder is never going to pass opener's 2NT. If opener rebids 2♦ or 2M then 2NT by responder is forcing to game.
Playing this style, I don't see 2♣ response as a real option. Obviously if you play that "balanced invites with no major go through 2♣" (in which case you may as well play direct 2NT is forcing) then 2♣ is a nice bid, but I don't think this is "standard 2/1" in any case.
Bidding 1NT over 1♦, I expect that opener will pass with a balanced 12-14. I'm bidding this way because I don't expect to make 3NT opposite most balanced 14s, and I expect that if opener has a really nice 14 with a lot of tenaces and a five-card diamond suit he would open 1NT (upgrade). Of course one can quarrel with my hand evaluation (I don't rate unsupported Ts and 9s very highly and I downgrade a LOT for 4333).
a.k.a. Appeal Without Merit
#10
Posted 2006-May-21, 17:02
I hate 'master-minding' the auction .. very destructive of partnership confidence.
The only bid available to me without special p'ship agreements is 1NT , so thats what i bid.
Rgds Dog
#11
Posted 2006-May-21, 17:53
Adam, most of the 2/1 players I know play 1D-2C as forcing for one round, and responder may pass a 2NT rebid by opener (though he typically wouldn't, usaully having 6 cards). I live in the northeast U.S. I guess things are different where you live.
Peter
#12
Posted 2006-May-21, 17:54
What would 2NT mean in your partnership?
Isn't 1NT an underbid with 11 hcp?
Peter
#13
Posted 2006-May-21, 19:04
The standard 2/1 does not include 2N as a balanced hand 11-12 (or stronger): 2N is a weak pre-emptive raise in diamonds (the limit raise in diamonds is 3♦, again to right side NT; and the limit raise in clubs is 3♣).
#14
Posted 2006-May-21, 19:44
Where do you play, Kalvan? 2N as balanced invitational is standard 2/1 where I live.
Peter
#15
Posted 2006-May-22, 00:03
#16
Posted 2006-May-22, 04:05
Free, on May 21 2006, 11:12 AM, said:
1.
What is partner supposed to do with 14HCP?
2.
What about 18-19?
3.
What about 12?
French style solution:
1. Rebid 2NT. Shows a balanced good 13 to 14. Now every bid by responder except 3♣ (broken suit) is game-forcing. This includes 3♦, by the way.
2. Rebid 3NT.
3. With balanced 12 or bad 13, open 1♣ despite having 44 minors or 4♦3♣.
Incidently, my problem with this hand isn't whether pard has a balanced hand; it's if he's unbalanced with a singleton in a major. Because of this, I think 2♣ is preferable to some NT bid. Of course, if pard can't play cards, a NT bid is a no-brainer
If it goes
1♦ 2♣
3♦
I'll surely regret my 2♣ bid!!!!!!!
#17
Posted 2006-May-22, 06:46
LHO leads ♥4, 4th best.
It is now or never: 50% chance for a disaster. Do you play the K or the 5 in dummy?
#18
Posted 2006-May-22, 06:55
#19
Posted 2006-May-22, 06:57
Low wins, if the lho has led low from QJx4 or if rho is so bad, that he will play the ace looking at AJx(x).
So I play lho for the ace and take my king now.
Roland
Sanity Check: Failure (Fluffy)
More system is not the answer...
#20
Posted 2006-May-22, 08:02
Free, on May 21 2006, 06:12 AM, said:
What is partner supposed to do with 14HCP? What about 18-19? What about 12?
For those who want to bid 1NT:
What is partner supposed to do with 14HCP? What about 12?
Assuming that 2♣ is 10+ and that you are playing a 15-17 NT-opening, partner's
2NT rebid shows 12-14 and his 3NT rebid shows 18-19. If he makes the 2NT rebid with 14hcp you risk missing 3NT with a total of 24-25hcp. If he makes the 3NT rebid with 14hcp he lies 4hcp and who knows where you end up. This is a typical problem in standard bidding (one that you can solve by playing one of those "fancy methods"). I choose the "practical 3NT" with 14hcp because I hate to miss a game in imps (and probably suffice with 2NT in matchpoints).

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