[jdeegan]

Scoring: MP

P-1♦-P-1♠-
P-1NT-P- ???

---

Playing 2/1 with NMF for one round. How would you handle this hand and why? Also, is it possible for opener to bid 3♦ or 3♥ or 3NT in response to NMF? If so, how would you handle this hand?

[Codo]

As always, I "know" what is standard: 3 Clubs to show 5-5 and invitationl strength.
But of course, other posters will know, that "their" standard is....very different.

Fot me, it is possible for opener to jump after a nmf to show, that he is at the upper limit.
And this makes me feel so comfortable with bidding the jump with invitational strength and 5/5...

[foo]

NMF is used by Inv+ Responding hands.
Although invitational hands are the most common, Responder may also be using NMF with various GF hands that are in some way hard to describe using other sequences:
GF a= any of the traditional NMF shapes
GF b= Responder has 6+ cards in their first bid Major.
GF c= Responder is two suited w/ M+m or S+H.
(There is also a rare invitational hand: 4M+6m in the NMF suit.)

Since Responder may be GF instead of invitational, Opener's responsibility is to
keep the auction as low as possible while telling Responder the most important
feature of their hand feasible. This by necessity means that Opener's primary
responsibility is either to show 3card support for Responder's Major or show an
unbid 4card H suit depending on the auction.
This approach is sometimes called "show H's first":

1C-1H;1N-2D!2h three card support
.....................2s 4 S's in a =4333 hand (with 4??4, the auction would be 1C-1H;1S).
.....................2n D Stop(s)
.....................3c catchall if nothing else possible
.....................3d D raise w/ maximum, no D stop, and 4+D

1C-1S;1N-2D!2h 4+H
.....................2s three card support
.....................2n D Stop(s)
.....................3c catchall if nothing else is possible
.....................3d D raise w/ maximum, no D stop, and 4+D

1D-1H;1N-2C!2d catchall if nothing else is possible
.....................2h three card support
.....................2s 4 S's in a =4333 hand (with 4?4?, the auction would be 1D-1H;1S).
.....................2n C Stop(s)
.....................3c C raise w/ maximum, no C stop, and 4+C

1D-1S;1N-2C!2d catchall if nothing else is possible
.....................2h 4 H's
.....................2s three card support
.....................2n C Stop(s)
.....................3c C raise w/ maximum, no C stop, and 4+C

Sometimes when the auction goes 1m-1M;1N, Responder has a weak hand w/ 4M+6m in the NMF suit.
When 1m-1M;1N-2om! is NMF, then 1m-1M;1N-3om! is To Play.

There is also "NMFish" available in the following auctions:
1C-1M;2C-2D!
NMF with Inv+ (where Inv+ is defined as 10+ HCP) values just like the auction had begun 1C-1M;1N-2D! (yes, 1C-1M;2C-3D! is To Play. Usually with a minimum
=2461 or =4261)

1D-1M-2D-3C!
NMF with GF values and a similar schedule of responses as 1D-1M;1N-2C!
GF values are required here because Opener's cheapest NT rebid is 3N...


So the =1st= thing you need to do is decide whether you hand is at least Invitational or not:
♠KJT74♥4♦93♣KQ972

1D-1S;1N-??

Opposite a 12-14 HCP flat hand (or worse something like =1453) is your hand Invitational?

Probably not.

Pass 1N or rebid 2S To Play

Replace the SJ w/ the SQ or add the CJ to the hand and then you have a minimally invitational hand that can afford to use NMF.

[han]

2♠ for me, it's matchpoints.

[kenberg]

Either 2S, or perhaps a direct 3C. I voted for 2S on the grounds that I can probably make it and I doubt that there is a game anywhere. I agree with Codo that a direct 3C shows 5-5 invitational. Bidding 2C and then 3C is forcing, or at least that is my understanding of NMF. I have no strong objection to the direct 3C, mostly I would be hoping for a pass, catching partner with a 1-4-5-3 shape. That's a tough shape to bid after 1D-1S, and perhaps that is what he has (as opener with the ace or Q of spades, stiff, and a shaggy diamond suit I would rebid 1NT in peference to 2D). But as responder I'll keep it simple and bid 2S.

[foo]

Pass
Is a LA. After all, you are a minimum. Even if you are a 55 minimum

2C followed by 2S over 2H or 2D.
Playing NMF and the modern style where Responder's 2nd round Jump Rebids are Inv, these are all GF sequences w/ 6+S. Good Luck.

2C followed by 3C over 2H or 2D or 2N
Playing NMF, this is an Inv hand w/ 5S+5C or 4S+6C depending on agreements.

2C followed by 3S or 4C over 2H or 2D or 2N
Interestingly, I don't think I've ever seen a definition for Opener's Jump Rebids after NMF...

2S
Is a LA. However, you could be in trouble if your agreements include that Opener is allowed to rebid 1N w/ a stiff baby S. Say 12-14 =1453...

3C
Playing NMF, this shows a weak hand with 4S+6C. Since 55's are more likely than 64's, I can see some sense in redefining this sequence to show the 55. The big problem is that you may very well end up playing at the three level w/o a fit or 23+ HCP. Redefining the sequence to show Inv 5S+5C solves the strength issue, but not the possible misfit issue (and if you use 1D-1S;1N-3C to show 5S+5C Inv, you should redefine 1D-1S;1N-2C;nosupport-3C as a GF 55).

3S
Usually played as a Inv hand w/ 6+S nowadays. "Back in The Day" w/o NMF this was GF.

When playing NMF, any use of NMF promises an Inv+ hand.

[jdeegan]

Thanks for all the responses. Evidently, there is no standard way to play when using NMF. It looks like one should work out the meaning of all the sequences with every partner, and just not play it with a casual partner since so many sequences will not be specifically defined.

On the actual hand, partner held:

82
AK42
J9762
A9

He bid 2♥ over my 2♣ bid. Not wanting to get too high, I bid 2♠. It went all pass, and 2♠ was the limit of the hand. I think this proves that Hannie's analysis is correct - bid 2♠ over 1NT because it is matchpoints. Using NMF on this hand courted disaster, and offered no compensating advantage, such as reaching a thin 4♠ game. We are just as likely to reach that contract if I had bid 2♠, and partner raised to 3♠. I was hoping partner had something like:

AQx
Jxx
AQxxx
10x

[mike777]

Hannie, on May 15 2006, 03:55 AM, said:

2♠ for me, it's matchpoints.

ditto.

I think with a casual expert bbo partner you are stuck playing NMF.

Some of them will play 2 way checkback and forum readers will play some basic version of XYZ.

[jdonn]

jdeegan, on May 16 2006, 12:23 AM, said:

Thanks for all the responses. Evidently, there is no standard way to play when using NMF. It looks like one should work out the meaning of all the sequences with every partner, and just not play it with a casual partner since so many sequences will not be specifically defined.

On the actual hand, partner held:

82
AK42
J9762
A9

He bid 2♥ over my 2♣ bid. Not wanting to get too high, I bid 2♠. It went all pass, and 2♠ was the limit of the hand. I think this proves that Hannie's analysis is correct - bid 2♠ over 1NT because it is matchpoints. Using NMF on this hand courted disaster, and offered no compensating advantage, such as reaching a thin 4♠ game. We are just as likely to reach that contract if I had bid 2♠, and partner raised to 3♠. I was hoping partner had something like:

AQx
Jxx
AQxxx
10x

If he held your example hand he should 100000% raise 1♠ to 2♠. It's not even close.

[han]

foo, on May 15 2006, 09:43 AM, said:

Pass
Is a LA. After all, you are a minimum. Even if you are a 55 minimum

I strongly disagree that pass is a logical alternative.

Jdonn said:

Quote

If he held your example hand he should 100000% raise 1♠ to 2♠. It's not even close.

The best bidder in the world should know that there are many world-class players who never raise with a balanced hand and 3-card support. I conceed that most of those do not live in the US, but I think that your wording is too strong Josh.

Having said that, I would raise 100000% with the given hand.

[jdonn]

Hannie, on May 16 2006, 11:57 AM, said:

The best bidder in the world should know that there are many world-class players who never raise with a balanced hand and 3-card support. I conceed that most of those do not live in the US, but I think that your wording is too strong Josh.

Having said that, I would raise 100000% with the given hand.

Currently 4th best bidder, please try to keep up!

[foo]

Hannie, on May 16 2006, 11:57 AM, said:

foo, on May 15 2006, 09:43 AM, said:

Pass
Is a LA.  After all, you are a minimum.  Even if you are a 55 minimum

I strongly disagree that pass is a logical alternative.

♠KJT74♥4♦93♣KQ972

1D-1S;-1N-??

Why? Do you somehow think 2N after 1D-1S;-1N-2C;-etc will play better than 1N if your min GOP is 44 or 45 in the red suits? That is what is most likely here after all...
And if Our agreement is that Opener could have 1-S on this auction, then rebidding 2S could be =very= dangerous.

If you feel you have to be able to take a bid systemically with this hand, you have to design System to cater to it. FWIW, if you were not playing NMF, you could rebid 2C with this hand. OTOH, you would not be able to easily handle many other hands where NMF is useful.

TANSTAAFL. Every choice we make has a cost.

Overbidding one's hand is also a choice. And it also has a cost.

Pass is the most underrated and underused call in Bridge.

[jdeegan]

jdonn, on May 16 2006, 10:50 AM, said:

jdeegan, on May 16 2006, 12:23 AM, said:

Thanks for all the responses.  Evidently, there is no standard way to play when using NMF.  It looks like one should work out the meaning of all the sequences with every partner, and just not play it with a casual partner since so many sequences will not be specifically defined.

On the actual hand, partner held:

82
AK42
J9762
A9

He bid 2♥ over my 2♣ bid.  Not wanting to get too high, I bid 2♠.  It went all pass, and 2♠ was the limit of the hand.  I think this proves that Hannie's analysis is correct - bid 2♠ over 1NT because it is matchpoints.  Using NMF on this hand courted disaster, and offered no compensating advantage, such as reaching a thin 4♠ game.  We are just as likely to reach that contract if I had bid 2♠, and partner raised to 3♠.  I was hoping partner had something like:

AQx
Jxx
AQxxx
10x

If he held your example hand he should 100000% raise 1♠ to 2♠. It's not even close.

OK, OK so I've been busted. I've found a 1NT rebid that offers a suitable play for game, but I'm sure it is something of a rara avis.

♠ xxx
♥ Axx
♦ KQxxx
♣ Ax

[foo]

jdeegan, on May 18 2006, 12:29 AM, said:

OK, OK so I've been busted. I've found a 1NT rebid that offers a suitable play for game, but I'm sure it is something of a rara avis.

♠ xxx♥ Axx♦ KQxxx♣ Ax

Yep. This nice control rich 13 count with a reasonable 5card suit and 3card support for S's is an evaluation problem after 1D-1S;-?? since it has the controls of the average 15 HCP and ~4.5 expected tricks.

ATT, I'd probably rebid 2S with it often.