jdonn, on Apr 28 2006, 11:50 AM, said:
Quote
Would anyone open 1N on x AKxx Axxx KQxx? Would anyone rebid 1N with x AKxx Axxx Qxxx after 1D-1S? The difference is:
you have information about partner's hand, so you have two distinct objectives:
1. describe your hand type for best exploration of strain and level
2. take the most tricks possible in your Final contract- here wrongsiding a contract is a concern, as is finding a playable part score if thats where you belong is also a concern
While in the case of the 4441, 1N is a misdiscription, its not that clear that 2C isn't also somewhat of a misdiscription, so bidding the cheap playable spot of 1N is a reasonable bid, although hardly clear (if partner later bids a slam expecting his AKQxxx of spades to be running, its "your fault" for bidding 1N).
In this hand after opening 1D you have information. The information you have is that, since partner has more (or equal) hearts than spades, that spades are a major weakness for NT, and you definitely don't belong in NT from your side. So you have to weigh
a. misdescribing your hand by 1 card (value a)
for
b. increasing the number of tricks you will take in a NT contract if thats in fact the strain you belong in.
I think jump shifting and then showing 3 hearts is reasonable since the point of it is to get to NT from partner's side if possible. I don't think jumping in hearts is reasonable, since we might belong in 3 other strains. I also think bidding 2N is fine but its ironic to be strongly suggesting a strain (jumping in it) when you know its wrong to be playing that strain from your side.....
If you held AQxx xx Jxx AQxx
And the auction went with the opps silent 1C-1D-1S(flexible stlye, can rebid a major or 1N with a balanced hand)-2H-> no one would be arguing about a 3D bid here even if it implies 4135. Yes our actual auction does more than imply a 5431, but still you are lying about only 1 card because your other rebid really is flawed as well.
Comparing a notrump rebid with a notrump opening my not always be fair but is fair in this case, because I am only discussing the distinction as it pertains to holding xx of a suit and the rightsiding concerns that flow from that. You said it yourself, with 1444 shape all rebids are something of a misdescription. With a 2344 18-19, a 2NT rebid is not a misdescription. When you hold 16 balanced with a small doubleton, you have the same concerns about rightsiding the hand as dealer that you do on this hand after 1♦ 1♥. In both cases, there is a clear systematic choice.
Sure, I also don't like 3♣ because it complicates the auction, and doesn't let us stop short of game like 2NT does. But it is absolutely masterminding. Opening a minor suit denies a balanced 15-17. Opening a minor suit and failing to rebid 2NT denies a balanced 18-19. The fact that there may be an undesirable aspect to your systematic bid or certain advantages to other bids is simply tough noogies, you aren't entitled to fish around for a spur of the moment made up solution. Well you are entitled since you paid your entry fee, but I think from a partnership and systematic aspect this is a judgement that neither player should be entitled to make.
Likewise with your example at the end. It's one thing to misdescribe when all bids misdescribe. That is not the case on the original hand.
2N does misdecscribe. It suggests playing in NT from yourside, which is something you don't want to do. I don't see why the natural meaning of 2N "I want to invite game in NT" is less important than the hand type meaning.
If you opened 1D on Ax Kxx AQxxxx Ax and raised a 1N response to 2N, are you masterminding? I just think you are inviting game in NT and happen to be 1 card away from normal shape. If you miss your diamond game or slam because of it, oh well. Is 2N or 3D the % bid? I personally think 2N is the % bid, but its very close. I don't consider either to be masterminding.

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