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Step Forward?

Poll: Your pd's 4NT seems passable, would you step further? You have J9xx x T9xx AQxx and the bidding went: 1C--1S, 2NT--3C, 4NT--?? (26 member(s) have cast votes)

Your pd's 4NT seems passable, would you step further? You have J9xx x T9xx AQxx and the bidding went: 1C--1S, 2NT--3C, 4NT--??

  1. pass (13 votes [50.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 50.00%

  2. 5C (5 votes [19.23%])

    Percentage of vote: 19.23%

  3. 5D (4 votes [15.38%])

    Percentage of vote: 15.38%

  4. 6C (4 votes [15.38%])

    Percentage of vote: 15.38%

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#1 User is offline   adhoc3 

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Posted 2005-December-17, 22:37

Scoring: IMP

1--1
2NT---3
4NT---???

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#2 User is offline   mike777 

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Posted 2005-December-18, 00:06

adhoc3, on Dec 17 2005, 11:37 PM, said:

Scoring: IMP

1--1
2NT---3
4NT---???

This is impossible bidding unless you are playing something that was not alerted. I doubt 3clubs promises clubs and a slam invite in almost any long term partnership and in zero in a pickup partnership.
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#3 User is offline   adhoc3 

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Posted 2005-December-18, 00:58

With a pickup pd, 2/1 agreed
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#4 User is offline   Robert 

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Posted 2005-December-18, 04:01

Hi everyone

Finish the hand(round) and leave this partner before they can strike again.

Regards,
Robert
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#5 User is offline   Winstonm 

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Posted 2005-December-18, 10:20

I do not think pard means 4N as passable - he has already announced his holdings with 2N therefore doesn not need to reshow his hand, while your hand has not been limited in any way therefore there can be no quantitative aspect.

I think you have caught partner on a very control rich 18-19 and there has been a misunderstanding - he thought 3C was some sort of forward movement whereas you seemed to be looking simply for the best game. The interesting thing is how to extracate yourself from this dilemma.

Even the best possible hand for partner's bidding: AKx, Axx, AJ, Kxxxxx still leaves slam in doubt but allows a comfortable 4N to be made; therefore it might be best to pass what partner probably means as ace asking - I don't see anyway to stop in exactly 5C.

BTW, I don't think the big hand bid very well. After showing the hand with 2N, there is no reason to retake control with a 4N bid when you can show cooperation for slam with a simple cue bid. So although I cannot imagine 4N to be some sort of general slam try, I also cannot see it a Ace asking, either - but I think that is what most partner's would want it to be therefore that is the assumption I make.

Logically, what it should mean is probably a weak holding in spades and asking for pass/correct based on the holding in that suit: xx, AKJ, AKx, KJ9xxx - this looks a reasonable approach to this hand as it isolates the problem for both game and slam bidding purposes; otherwise, 4N is something of a non-bid IMO.

Winston
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#6 User is online   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2005-December-18, 10:46

Hi,

without any special agreement 3C
could have been passed out, unless
2NT was already game forcing.

Assuming 2NT was game forcing 3C
is an overbid, but 4NT now is RKCB
for clubs.
Assuming 3C can be passed out 4NT
is a impossible bid.

Marlowe
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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#7 User is offline   Double ! 

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Posted 2005-December-18, 11:35

"Nobody knows the troubles I've seen"

and, nobody knows the bids that I have seen........

I suspect that partner does not have the classic 2NT rebid, that P has interpreted 3C as showing support, and that P is now interested in a possible club slam. I would answer aces or keycards, whatever P has on his/her profile (probably nothing), and then apologize if something goes very wrong. You can always fall back on, "Well, P, you bid 4NT...I thought that was asking for aces." I suspect that you have the perfect hand for P and lucked out when you bid 3C: the hand does play great opposite a 1336 control-rich hand.

lol, it takes a poor player to be able to think like one.

DHL
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#8 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2005-December-18, 11:44

Agree with Robert, this partner has no clue.
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

- hrothgar
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#9 User is offline   cherdano 

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Posted 2005-December-18, 11:50

I am sure this is Blackwood. I am also sure I will pass this. There might be 10 top tricks without a finesse, and then even partner might make it (and unfortunately partner would be declarer in 6, too).

Arend
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#10 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2005-December-18, 11:56

Partner has a srtong 1 suiter, and knows very well what he is doing, he could had cued on the wy to six to find our singleton, but he probably oesn't even need it. 5 or 6 will likelly end on the same contract, so any of them will do.
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#11 User is offline   Kalvan14 

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Posted 2005-December-18, 17:22

The auction does not make a lot of sense, unless pard is one of those players who like to bid the hand twice in a row.
If he/she has a strong 1-suite in , it would be better to clarify the hand with 4 [certainly forcing]: I play it as RKC, but in a pick-up partnership it should ask for a cue-bid.
Hearing 4NT, I've no doubt: pass
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#12 User is offline   LH2650 

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Posted 2005-December-18, 18:55

Robert, on Dec 18 2005, 05:01 AM, said:

Hi everyone

Finish the hand(round) and leave this partner before they can strike again.

Regards,
Robert

Marlowe thinks 3 clubs is a signoff, Winston thinks it is a choice of games, partner thinks it is forward-going, and Wolff thinks it is his convention. Are all treatments other than the one you have adopted meritless? Partner clearly means his bid as Blackwood, and if you do anything other than give the proper systemic response, you are masterminding, and you won't have to worry about dumping partner, because he will be dumping you.
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#13 User is offline   pclayton 

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Posted 2005-December-18, 19:29

I'm sure I can come up with a lot of nonsensical auctions and try to make some 'sense' out of them.

This is the kind of sequence you may see only once in your life and there isnt a lot to be gained by trying to figure out what your pard is up to.
"Phil" on BBO
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#14 User is offline   adhoc3 

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Posted 2005-December-19, 01:06

Quote

Even the best possible hand for partner's bidding: AKx, Axx, AJ, Kxxxxx still leaves slam in doubt but allows a comfortable 4N to be made; therefore it might be best to pass what partner probably means as ace asking - I don't see anyway to stop in exactly 5C.
...............

Logically, what it should mean is probably a weak holding in spades and asking for pass/correct based on the holding in that suit: xx, AKJ, AKx, KJ9xxx - this looks a reasonable approach to this hand as it isolates the problem for both game and slam bidding purposes; otherwise, 4N is something of a non-bid IMO.


Winstonm re-contructed the hand very precisely. The pard's hand was alike:

ATx AKJ Ax K98xx

He could have taken 3C as Slam interests, Wolff was out of consideration for one-shot partnership. Maybe he was thinking: "what does this guy mean here? Slam interest or just a game try? ....... 4NT would be a neutral thing, he can pass or correct." So it's becomes reasonable why he didnt start cuebid. Pass 4NT would be the best result. But I did not capture the thought of partner at that time.

Observing form my side, my hand strongly preferred trump contract. It would be bad bridge playing 3NT down but 5C/D stone safe (yes, could be more stupid playing hopeless 5 level contract when there's 9 fast tricks:). I knew pd was thinking something strange but I could be sure. I simply could not pass a doubtful bid made by new partner. If my singleton valued, 6C would not be too bad: pd's hand could be AK Axxx AQ KT98x. or AKQ Axxx Kx Kxxxx. If H singleton was wastage, as actually it is, 5C could be in risk. So I took the bet and bid 6C.

The contract was of coz hopeless while the other room playing 3NT+2, 13 imps gone. Their bidding was:

1NT(alerted 16-18)--2C
3NT!?

I don't think they bid better than us.

BTW, There was no blame-defence happened on my table. TYP
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#15 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2005-December-19, 02:16

I take it 3 is a positive, game-forcing bid. In that case, it makes a lot of sense for pard to ask 4NT because he is, after all, the strong hand. 4NT is obviously blackwood. To pass 4NT now basically means "sorry pard, I made a mistake in the previous round of bidding". Which is also true, because that hand should have bid 3NT instead of 3 :(
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#16 User is offline   mike777 

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Posted 2005-December-19, 07:57

Believe it or not last night I had this auction hand one of team game.

1c=1h
2nt=3nt
4c=5nt
7c=p

1h=hearts
2nt is not, repeat not forcing, if you play it forcing fine but let partner in on your secret!
3nt=sign off. If I have an invite hand I will bid something.
4c=again another impossible bid......just rebid 3nt or open 2nt or 2c...good grief. If you are going to play 2nt as forcing, tell me!
5nt=pick a small slam good grief.
7clubs...Just great, last hand bye all.

7 clubs makes on a finesse but partner seems to have played for some obscure squeeze I guess which seems very much against the odds and was.
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#17 User is offline   joker_gib 

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Posted 2005-December-19, 08:09

I don't understand the bidding but passing 4NT is out of this world ! (it cannot be quantitative after the precise 2NT rebid)

5 (showing 1 key (glad this is an ace) (in ?) in my book)
Alain
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#18 User is offline   Al_U_Card 

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Posted 2005-December-19, 11:03

I agree, especially in a pick-up partnership. Make straightforward bids like 3NT with that hand (pard is responsible for the H, of course). 19+7 =3NT why suggest another course of action to pard? 3C smacks of a slam try in clubs so pard will think that you have a nice unbalanced 10-11 count with aspirations......
The Grand Design, reflected in the face of Chaos...it's a fluke!
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#19 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2005-December-19, 13:56

mike777, on Dec 19 2005, 01:57 PM, said:

Believe it or not last night I had this auction hand one of team game.

1c=1h
2nt=3nt
4c=5nt
7c=p

1h=hearts
2nt is not, repeat not forcing, if you play it forcing fine but let partner in on your secret!
3nt=sign off. If I have an invite hand I will bid something.
4c=again another impossible bid......just rebid 3nt or open 2nt or 2c...good grief. If you are going to play 2nt as forcing, tell me!
5nt=pick a small slam good grief.
7clubs...Just great, last hand bye all.

7 clubs makes on a finesse but partner seems to have played for some obscure squeeze I guess which seems very much against the odds and was.

I like your partner's bidding :P, not the play though.

5NT pick a slam is not a world standard, in fact, if your partner had what I think he was having, 4 already stated where the possible slam was gonna be played. %NT would then have to be grand slam force. I know, that is a bit odd for a pickup partnership :). But I would had done well if I Was his partner ;)
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#20 User is offline   Al_U_Card 

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Posted 2005-December-19, 14:13

IS the 2NT not 18-19 balanced? Opposite as little as 5 hcp, making it forcing seems a bit much. So what is it then?
The Grand Design, reflected in the face of Chaos...it's a fluke!
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