[awm]

Scoring: MP

---

LHO opens 1♠, partner bids 2♥, and RHO passes. You start with 2NT. Now LHO bids 3♦ and partner bids 4♣. RHO competes with 4♦.

Do you agree with the 2NT call? What will you do now over 4♦?

(again the auction is 1♠-2♥-P-2NT; 3♦-4♣-4♦-??)

[whereagles]

Looks like pard is 2-5-1-5. Slam is possible, albeit optimistic. There's nothing wrong with 4♠, though.

[han]

I also vote for 4S. Partner will figure out that I have great clubs since my hand must have gotten a lot better. I can't imagine overstating the value of my hand at this point.


2NT is a close call, I think that I would pass. However, I'm certainly glad that I bid it now that partner has shown clubs!

[mikeh]

I would have passed 2♥.

I rarely stretch in these situations at mps, and, besides, most mp opps treat this as a forcing sequence

Having said that, I am certainly worth 4♠.

4♥ might be the best mp spot, but someone once wrote that mps was no reason to play bad bridge

Guessing exact shape is a sucker's game, but I would not be surprised to find RHO with 2=4=5=2 shape (no 2♠ raise, yet values for 4♦) and opener 6=2=5=0 with partner 2=5=1=5... 4♥ requires that he have pretty good ♥: and give him this shape with AKxxx♥, 6♣ is making. So 4♥ wins only on a few specific holdings: hand is wrong for slam yet ♥ are long/strong enough to avoid losers/loss of control.

[beatrix45]

I agree with 2NT.

Also agree with the majority that 4♠ is probably the best bid. It is the same as bidding 5♣, and it alerts partner to lead a spade.

But, what do you think about a pass as a way to shoot for a top? 4♦ isn't game, so if it goes all pass, we might win the board if they do have 11 tricks in diamonds against our 10 tricks in clubs.

LHO opened and then bid to the three level opposite a passing partner and in the teeth of an opponent's NT bid. With only 3 HCP in spades, he ought to be 5-5 or 6-5 with two aces. We may end up taking only the AK of spades on defense unless the clubs split 1-1.

RHO must have heart length and lots of diamonds. Everybody else is bidding like they are 6-5, 5-5 or 6-4 in their long suits. I'm almost convinced that our limit is 10 (or 11 if pard has a diamond void) tricks, and they can make 5♦.

If they do bid 5♦, would I go for a -300 in 6♣*? I dunno.

[han]

Huh?

I'm not bidding 4S as a lead director, I'm bidding 4S because I think that we might have slam.

Although the lead directing values is certainly nice.

[Walddk]

Agree with 2NT. I have a great hand after his 4♣, so it's a clear 4♠ now. Unlike other posters I don't think partner is ?-5-?-5. He has more shape than that. x-6-x-5 is more like it, because he had the option of venturing Michaels, but he did not.

Note to Hannie: what does "gotten" mean? Was my English teacher way out when he taught us to inflect "to get" like this:

"I get, "I got", I have got"? If yes, I want my school money back! Or is it perhaps another North American attempt of ruining the English language?

Roland

[Free]

I don't feel like looking for slam here. I'd just signoff. Question is: 5♣ or 4♥? 4♥ is one trick less, we might lose 2♦ and another trick on the way (depends on how opps bid). So 4♥ for me...

[beatrix45]

Hannie, on Sep 30 2005, 09:58 PM, said:

Huh?

I'm not bidding 4S as a lead director, I'm bidding 4S because I think that we might have slam.

Although the lead directing values is certainly nice.

You may be correct, but I am having trouble coming up with a layout (short of a true freak, e.g. a 6-6) where we can make 6♣ and everyone else has their bid or even something close to having their bid.

[mike777]

At MP
1) Would not bid 2nt
2) 4H now, give up on slam

Willing to listen and learn more about MP bidding.

[mikestar]

Walddk, on Oct 1 2005, 08:26 AM, said:

Note to Hannie: what does "gotten" mean? Was my English teacher way out when he taught us to inflect "to get" like this:

"I get, "I got", I have got"? If yes, I want my school money back! Or is it perhaps another North American attempt of ruining the English language? 

No, it is the USA lagging behind the evolution of the English language. "I have gotten" is correct American English, though few people outside a classroom would find "I have got" objectionable. "I have got" is correct British English, and most schools in non English speaking countries teach English using the British model.

[han]

I can't answer your question Roland, so I'm glad that Mikestar did.

I'm not a native speaker, and even though I'm about half your age I don't remember what my teachers told me, at least not all of it. I congratulate you on your excellent memory.

[awm]

Here's the actual hand:

Scoring: MP

---

At the table, I chose 5♣. It's probably better to bid 4♠, but the auction didn't end with my 5♣ call regardless. The bidding was:

1♠-2♥-Pass-2NT
3♦-4♣-4♦-5♣
Pass-Pass-5♦-Pass
Pass-5♥-Pass-6♣
Pass-Pass-Double-Pass
Pass-Pass

+1190 was a top board; it was a pretty small game and the field wasn't getting to slam (so the double didn't really matter).

[mike777]

Good hand to debate whether 2h or 2s(michaels) is preferred.

For me I am willing to bid to 5 level by myself so I would be happy to start with 2s and show huge 2 suiter later.

[Impact]

mikestar, on Oct 1 2005, 09:59 AM, said:

Walddk, on Oct 1 2005, 08:26 AM, said:

Note to Hannie: what does "gotten" mean? Was my English teacher way out when he taught us to inflect "to get" like this:

"I get, "I got", I have got"? If yes, I want my school money back! Or is it perhaps another North American attempt of ruining the English language? 

No, it is the USA lagging behind the evolution of the English language. "I have gotten" is correct American English, though few people outside a classroom would find "I have got" objectionable. "I have got" is correct British English, and most schools in non English speaking countries teach English using the British model.

Actually it is not English at all.

"I have " is sufficient in the sense "I possess" or hold as opposed to past tense.

Similarly "got" is already the past tense of "get" so there is no need to find a past participle for it.

It is apparently an archaic Americanism which is back in vogue in certain parts of the uneducated world

[EricK]

Impact, on Oct 2 2005, 05:09 AM, said:

mikestar, on Oct 1 2005, 09:59 AM, said:

Walddk, on Oct 1 2005, 08:26 AM, said:

Note to Hannie: what does "gotten" mean? Was my English teacher way out when he taught us to inflect "to get" like this:

"I get, "I got", I have got"? If yes, I want my school money back! Or is it perhaps another North American attempt of ruining the English language? 

No, it is the USA lagging behind the evolution of the English language. "I have gotten" is correct American English, though few people outside a classroom would find "I have got" objectionable. "I have got" is correct British English, and most schools in non English speaking countries teach English using the British model.

Actually it is not English at all.

"I have " is sufficient in the sense "I possess" or hold as opposed to past tense.

Similarly "got" is already the past tense of "get" so there is no need to find a past participle for it.

It is apparently an archaic Americanism which is back in vogue in certain parts of the uneducated world

In English, "gotten" used to be the normal form, and was such (although it was going out of fashion) at the time the first settlers went over to America. A similar form still exist with eg "taken": "I took a finesse" and "I have taken a finesse", and in phrases such as "I am beholden to you" and "Why have you forsaken me?" which, admittedly, have rather a dated feel to them.

[omeroj]

I will bid 4 ♥....i'm sure to make it if my p is a good p; if i will go down opp will make always 4♦.
If my p have a very nice hand..could bid 4♠ on my 4♥ and we try to play slam.


Omero

[Fluffy]

2NT feels like a good option, ,I must admit I would had probably bid just 3♥ missing the slam.

After 4♣ bidding 4♠ just seems right.