# BBO Discussion Forums: 1 !S and NT inverted responses - BBO Discussion Forums

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## 1 !S and NT inverted responses

### #1ttti

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Posted 2018-February-09, 03:30

I have read an article (from Sweden I suppose), which mentioned a system, where the "normal" 1 and 1 NT responses to (at least) 1 are inverted. 1 denies 4 card and . 1 NT is 4+ .

I don't find this article any more. Have You heard or played this kind of system? What are the point ranges for 1 and 1 NT?
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### #2fromageGB

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Posted 2018-February-09, 04:22

I haven't heard of it been used over a minor open, but I do play something similar - Kaplan inversion - over a 1 open. My 1NT is 5+ spades, but I have heard of 4. The point ranges are related to those you would use for the bids as you would play uninverted, so 1NT is expected to be 6+ hcp unlimited, while 1 can now be also unlimited, as it is forcing. So a basic flat 6-10 can bid 1 and pass 1NT, while a stronger responder would bid on.
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### #3ttti

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Posted 2018-February-09, 05:31

fromageGB, on 2018-February-09, 04:22, said:

I haven't heard of it been used over a minor open, but I do play something similar - Kaplan inversion - over a 1 open. My 1NT is 5+ spades, but I have heard of 4. The point ranges are related to those you would use for the bids as you would play uninverted, so 1NT is expected to be 6+ hcp unlimited, while 1 can now be also unlimited, as it is forcing. So a basic flat 6-10 can bid 1 and pass 1NT, while a stronger responder would bid on.

Thank You. Now I see the light. I misread (and more probably misunderstood) the article, I thought it is applied after (2+) 1 .

So 1 NT is forcing as 1 . What about the same approach after (4+) 1 ?
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### #4steve2005

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Posted 2018-February-09, 06:53

ttti, on 2018-February-09, 05:31, said:

So 1 NT is forcing as 1 . What about the same approach after (4+) 1 ?

There are methods that play 1N as forcing after 1 but they are not common. A method using Gazilli or something similar over 1 is one.
But Kaplan Inversion is over 1 openings.
Sarcasm is a state of mind
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### #5Kungsgeten

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Posted 2018-February-12, 16:50

ttti, on 2018-February-09, 05:31, said:

Thank You. Now I see the light. I misread (and more probably misunderstood) the article, I thought it is applied after (2+) 1 .

So 1 NT is forcing as 1 . What about the same approach after (4+) 1 ?

After 1-1NT (showing 5+ spades) you sometimes have to rebid a 3-card club suit, if you have 2-5-3-3 distribution. It is more problematic after 1-1NT, if 1NT shows 5+ spades:

- 1-4-5-3 would probably need to rebid 2, if too weak to reverse. Or maybe 2?
- 2-4-4-3 would also rebid 2. Not a problem if 1 promises an unbalanced hand.
- 2-3-5-3?

Also I'm not really sure what the benefits of this treatment would be, but a low-level forcing bid can probably be useful. Over a 1 opening:

1 = Artificial and forcing. Usually 0-4 spades and 0-3 hearts, but could have longer majors if game forcing.
1 = 4+.
1NT = 5+, forcing.
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