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Stiffening 1NT response over interference

#1 User is offline   el mister 

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Posted 2017-June-19, 02:46

Is it standard to solidify your 1NT responses over pard's opening bid, if RHO overcalls at the 1 level, in a 2/1 context? I noticed GIB uses 8-11, but I've read other sources recommending 1N is just a natural 6-9, non-forcing, with a stop.

Can 2N be played as natural here, 10-12, also? Or is it better to use it as a conventional bid?
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#2 User is offline   fromageGB 

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Posted 2017-June-19, 05:42

If 1NT is natural, I don't think it is standard to change the strength range.
Of course 2NT can be natural, but I think standard is to play it as a support bid of some sort if partner has opened a major. If partner has opened a minor, certainly natural is standard.

My preference is that if partner opened 1, when you want 2NT to be conventional (I play 3 card support and 11+hcp, while a cue bid is 4 card support and 9+, but I think standard is the reverse of these) then it is better to transfer to 1NT by means of a double, while 1NT is itself a transfer to clubs. This means you can transfer to 1NT and pass, with the natural 1NT hand, and transfer then raise to 2NT with the natural 2NT hand. However, this is NOT standard and needs partnership agreement.
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#3 User is offline   el mister 

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Posted 2017-June-19, 06:43

View PostfromageGB, on 2017-June-19, 05:42, said:

If 1NT is natural, I don't think it is standard to change the strength range.
Of course 2NT can be natural, but I think standard is to play it as a support bid of some sort if partner has opened a major. If partner has opened a minor, certainly natural is standard.

My preference is that if partner opened 1, when you want 2NT to be conventional (I play 3 card support and 11+hcp, while a cue bid is 4 card support and 9+, but I think standard is the reverse of these) then it is better to transfer to 1NT by means of a double, while 1NT is itself a transfer to clubs. This means you can transfer to 1NT and pass, with the natural 1NT hand, and transfer then raise to 2NT with the natural 2NT hand. However, this is NOT standard and needs partnership agreement.

Thks fromageGB - thinking about it, it is just the specific auction 1 - 1 overcall - 1NT that I am trying to clarify. With no intervention 1NT would normally be a 2/1 style wide ranging, forcing bid ca. 6-12, but over intervention should it revert to natural 6-9, or stronger than that?
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#4 User is offline   Zelandakh 

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Posted 2017-June-19, 07:07

View Postel mister, on 2017-June-19, 06:43, said:

Thks fromageGB - thinking about it, it is just the specific auction 1 - 1 overcall - 1NT that I am trying to clarify. With no intervention 1NT would normally be a 2/1 style wide ranging, forcing bid ca. 6-12, but over intervention should it revert to natural 6-9, or stronger than that?

Over interference it typically reverts to 6-9 because the 2/1 responses are no longer game forcing. The point here is that it is both more important to get your suit in quickly before you get preempted and (slightly) less likely that you hold a game force without support after RHO's interference.

As an aside, I will mention that as a junior I played the specific sequence 1 - (1) - 1NT as showing diamonds with no reference to spades at all, so wide-ranging can work too within a certain context. As always, competition in the auction puts a premium on getting your shape across quickly and this is in turn more important than intricate auctions to game contracts.
(-: Zel :-)
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#5 User is offline   spotlight7 

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Posted 2017-June-19, 07:10

You do not need to keep the auction open with normal 6-7HCP hands.

I like to have 1H-(1S)-1N show 7 with a double stopper or 8-10

with a normal opening bid style.


If you open lighter, 1N could be 8-11 here.
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#6 User is offline   Mkgnao 

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Posted 2017-June-20, 18:57

I'm used to playing 1NT as 8-10 in a competitive auction like 1x - (1y/dbl) - 1NT and 1NT as 4-11 in a non-competitive auction like 1x - (p) - 1NT.
For example, 1 - (1) - 1NT promises 8-10 and a -stopper, while 1 - (p) - 1NT would show 4-11.

The main difference between the competitive and non-competitive auction is that you will pass with 6-7 balanced after a double/overcall, while you would respond with 6-7 in an uncontested auction. The idea of passing with 6-7 bal. is that partner will often be minimum (say 11-13) so there is no need to rush to 1NT with neither a known fit nor the balance of the points. I review 6-7 unbal. on a case-to-case-basis and of course, there can be tactical reasons for responding 1NT on say a 0-2 count in both a contested and uncontested auction in the hope of increasing the likelihood of the opponents missing their game.

With regard to 2NT after interference over our 1x-opener, I use almost the same agreements as I would without the interference. This means that after a 1m-opener 2NT is good 10-11 and after a 1M-opener 2NT is still M-fit. There is one difference: if we open 1M and they overcall, then the cue-bid shows 3 card support and 2NT shows 4+ card support.
For example, 1 - (1) - ... 2 = 3 card, invitational or better and 2NT = 4+ card support, invitational or better.
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#7 User is offline   Zelandakh 

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Posted 2017-June-21, 01:40

View PostMkgnao, on 2017-June-20, 18:57, said:

With regard to 2NT after interference over our 1x-opener, I use almost the same agreements as I would without the interference. This means that after a 1m-opener 2NT is good 10-11

You really play 1m - (X) - 2NT as 10-11 balanced? What do you use the redouble for?
(-: Zel :-)
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#8 User is offline   Mkgnao 

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Posted 2017-June-21, 03:47

View PostZelandakh, on 2017-June-21, 01:40, said:

You really play 1m - (X) - 2NT as 10-11 balanced? What do you use the redouble for?


10+ with a hand oriented for defence, but we tend to avoid redouble since it makes our auction murky.
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#9 User is offline   fromageGB 

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Posted 2017-June-22, 09:34

View Postel mister, on 2017-June-19, 06:43, said:

Thks fromageGB - thinking about it, it is just the specific auction 1 - 1 overcall - 1NT that I am trying to clarify. With no intervention 1NT would normally be a 2/1 style wide ranging, forcing bid ca. 6-12, but over intervention should it revert to natural 6-9, or stronger than that?

For me, 1 (1) X would be a transfer to 1NT that could be the normal 6-9, or 10-12 if you rebid 2NT (adjust strength to suit your breakpoints). The important thing is that playing transfers allows you to show a minor (played by partner) with a weak hand or a strong hand, perhaps showing a minor that you could not have shown without the interference, and that you also get two ways to support to 2. 2 transfer to 2 is the full strength 3 card 7-10, while a direct 2 is weaker.

Edit : of course you can also show a minor as well as (perhaps poor) support, for example transfer to 2 then bid 2 non-forcing.
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