I am honestly wondering if anyone has ever seen this before, GIB choosing

**a literally 0% play** over a

**literally 100% play**. Just to put a fine point on it:

1. GIB knows where all the spades are (it had 3, declarer showed 3, partner showed 2, dummy showed 5).

2. GIB knows where all the diamonds are (dummy had 4, it had 2, declarer showed 2)

3. GIB does not know where all the clubs are, but only 4 are outstanding (I discarded two already).

So, what are my possible hands?

The "worst case scenario" is that I opened with:

a.

AT4

Kx

AK

QJ9872

Or the middling case:

b.

AT4

Kxx

AK

H9872 (H=Q/J)

On the other end of the spectrum is my actual hand:

c.

AT4

Kxxx

AK

9872

b. is a bona fide 1NT opening, a is debateable (not sure what GIB thinks?) and c is 14 so maybe impossible.

However, in all of a-c, ducking the ace of hearts is known to let the slam through (the human has the option of finessing on the way back) and winning and waiting for the heart trick is known to beat it.

So far, I was ignoring the 1NT opening and carding and talking about cold maths here (I cannot have less than 2 hearts, there aren't enough clubs outside).

So, what is going on? I assume the key to understanding this is trick 2, when EastGIB followed with the

♣3 and trick 5 when he followed with the

♣6. Maybe this means that EastGIB can only have 3 or 5 clubs? And because I "can't" open 1NT on 6 clubs, it decided that I must have hand 3b, which I also "can't have" so it just gave up simulating and started ducking everything??

If this is the case, there should be a backup plan for these "gave up simulating" situations, for example, GIB falling back on pure mathematical inferences (all suits still add up to 10 points and 13 cards, no matter how abusive humans are) and ignoring everything else.

edit: sorry, re-formatting after posting.

This post has been edited by **gwnn**: 2017-April-24, 09:23

... and I can prove it with my usual, flawless logic.

George Carlin