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What does "a hand within one trick of game" mean?

#21 User is offline   Zelandakh 

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Posted 2017-January-25, 04:29

For strong one-suiters, I guess an approximate summary would be:

Reverse Benji:-
2 with 8-8.5 PTs in any suit
2 with stronger hands
--
Benji:-
2 with 8-8.5 PTs in any suit
2 with stronger hands
--
3 Weak 2s and Paradox responses:-
2 with 8+ PTs in a major; 9+ PTs in a minor
--
3 Weak 2s and negative 2 response:-
2 with 9+ PTs in any suit
--

As with any such listing, I reserve the right to choose differently for a specific hand! ;) B-)
(-: Zel :-)
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#22 User is offline   Cyberyeti 

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Posted 2017-January-25, 04:48

View Postjohnu, on 2017-January-24, 21:21, said:

I always take out my iPhone to calculate K&R when at tournaments before I make an opening bid. :P


I tend to do my own evaluation based on experience, I then use K&R afterwards to confirm my analysis or not, and usually we think roughly the same way, whether this is a good thing or not is a valid question.
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#23 User is offline   Liversidge 

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Posted 2017-January-25, 06:43

View PostZelandakh, on 2017-January-25, 04:29, said:

For strong one-suiters, I guess an approximate summary would be:

Reverse Benji:-
2 with 8-8.5 PTs in any suit
2 with stronger hands
--
Benji:-
2 with 8-8.5 PTs in any suit
2 with stronger hands
--
3 Weak 2s and Paradox responses:-
2 with 8+ PTs in a major; 9+ PTs in a minor
--
3 Weak 2s and negative 2 response:-
2 with 9+ PTs in any suit


As with any such listing, I reserve the right to choose differently for a specific hand! ;) B-)



So playing 3 weak 2's with 9 PTs and a single suited long minor I would bid 2 even though I need two tricks from partner to make 5.
With two tricks wouldn't partner be unlikely to pass 1 - which gives more bidding space?
2-2-3with 9 PTs could be a two suiter with 5 clubs and and I would have to go to the 4 level to describe it.
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#24 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2017-January-25, 07:16

View PostLiversidge, on 2017-January-25, 06:43, said:

So playing 3 weak 2's with 9 PTs and a single suited long minor I would bid 2 even though I need two tricks from partner to make 5.
With two tricks wouldn't partner be unlikely to pass 1 - which gives more bidding space?

Yes I agree.

Only open 2 if your hand is too strong for
1-1M
3

This means that you open 2 is you want to be in game opposite some random misfitting 6-7 count which would pass the latter rebid.

Personally, I prefer only to open 2 with a long minor if I have a GF hand. The thing is, if
2-2
3
is nonforcing, what does partner do with say QTxxx and out? Opener might have nine tricks outside spades and just need a spade stopper. Or he might have calculated two tricks for AKx. Then again, opposite A-AKx-x-KQJxxxx your hand may be useless. So the upside of being allowed to pass in a partscore after a 2 opening is dubious.
The world would be such a happy place, if only everyone played Acol :) --- TramTicket
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#25 User is offline   Zelandakh 

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Posted 2017-January-25, 09:16

View PostLiversidge, on 2017-January-25, 06:43, said:

So playing 3 weak 2's with 9 PTs and a single suited long minor I would bid 2 even though I need two tricks from partner to make 5.
With two tricks wouldn't partner be unlikely to pass 1 - which gives more bidding space?
2-2-3with 9 PTs could be a two suiter with 5 clubs and and I would have to go to the 4 level to describe it.

2 tricks is a funny thing. xxx support and a side shortage can be 2 tricks; similarly xxxx or xxxxx can be a stopper for 3NT when the suit does not break unfavourably. As a general rule, if we are not off off the top, when Responder's hand provides 1 trick it usually will also provide some opportunity for a second. So I have no qualms about GFing with hands that are stronger than an Acol 2.

Whether we have more bidding space after 1m depends a little bit on system and agreements. It should be clear that there is usually no direct way of showing a 1-suiter too strong for 3m below 3NT after a 1 level response. Some use a little conventionality here, bundling this one-suiter into a reversing sequence or, like CY, using a gadget rebid for GF hands. If we have that then great - but it is unlikely for N/B pairs!

It is certainly true that 2 - 2; 3 can be a number of hand types. My recommendation here is to play Responder's 3 rebid as a Stayman-like enquiry to at least eliminate the hands with a 4 card major on the side. With diamond-based hands, a common modern refinement is to play 2 - 2; 3M as showing 4M and longer diamonds. This means that 2 - 2; 3 denies a 4 card major and is usually a one-suiter. Naturally both of these are more advanced ideas though.

In the end, you of course have to decide each hand on its merits. If it is clear that there will be a better auction opening 1m and we are not scared of a passout, which is usually the case when we are distributional, then opening 1m is clear. What we are talking about here is the grey area where either approach will have its advantages and disadvantages. I come from an Acol background, in particular having played rather a lot with Reverse Benji methods. That colours my logic one way and that logic in turn got built into my strong club system to some extent. Those that have only played 5cM, strong NT, 3 weaks will likely have the completely opposite mentality and logic. And yet my experience from threads of this nature over the years is that the difference at the end of the day is extremely small. The real difference comes from those posters that I see quoting rules like this one "a trick short of game in hand" or one of the other such rules around such as "more QTs than losers", or "5 QTs".

Let's have a small thought experiment. Construct a 9PT diamond 1-suiter that you would be unhappy opening 2 and post how you see the auction going for various responding hands. We can compare it at the end of the day with the 2->3 auction above. My guess would be that 1 will come out ahead when game is not on (2 openers cannot stop) and 2 will make for easier auctions when game is there (1 openers either rebid 3m, risking a pass or 3NT+ giving less bidding space) - but game will be available the vast majority of the time. Thus the 9PT guideline is more of a practical concept for where a GF hand starts than suggesting that 2 should be opened with non-GF minor one-suiters. It is possible to include some weaker minor suit hands here but it requires a lot of compromises to do and is impractical for most I/A pairs, let alone N/B! Hopefully I have not misled you in this respect!
(-: Zel :-)
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#26 User is offline   mycroft 

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Posted 2017-January-25, 10:37

View PostLiversidge, on 2017-January-25, 02:39, said:

What is K&R?
Kaplan/Rubens Complex Count. Blame the Bridge World. A good description (and a great calculator) is on Jeff Goldsmith's site:
Description
Calculator
It's actually very useful for improving your sight evaluation of hands, as you can see where K&R massively downvalues stuff you thought was good, and upvalues stuff you thought was good, but maybe not that much. But yeah, calculating that at the table...
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