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Momentary Ghestem misunderstanding EBU

#1 User is offline   VixTD 

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Posted 2016-November-30, 08:16

Club duplicate matchpoint pairs:

At the club last night I was called in the middle of the auction on this hand. EW play standard Benjamin Acol and ask a lot about alerted calls, NS play a scientific, gadget-rich version of Acol with a strong no trump, multi-2 and various other things.

North alerted 2NT, West asked and he explained it as the lowest-ranking two suits. He bid 3 and then realised his mistake after East had passed, called the director and corrected the explanation to both majors. East didn't want to retract her pass, South was warned about unauthorized information and the table was invited to call me back at the end of play if, for example, West might have made a different call with the correct explanation, or if anyone thought there might be cause for redress in any way.

There is no indication that South reacted to North's explanation in any way, so let's assume he didn't. The correct explanation was both majors (it's very popular around here, and has caught me out too in the past).

South made the contract for 8/8 MPs. I wasn't called back, but do you think I should have been?
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#2 User is offline   billw55 

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Posted 2016-November-30, 08:43

It matters what the agreed or default meaning of 3 is. If natural, ignoring the majors, then passing it out might be a logical alternative for south, and an adjustment could be considered. Perhaps a poll of peers is in order.

Also if south is pulling, I can't imagine why he bid 3 instead of 3. But that seems irrelevant to the ruling.
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#3 User is offline   Vampyr 

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Posted 2016-November-30, 10:07

View Postbillw55, on 2016-November-30, 08:43, said:

It matters what the agreed or default meaning of 3 is. If natural, ignoring the majors, then passing it out might be a logical alternative for south, and an adjustment could be considered. Perhaps a poll of peers is in order.


Yes, I agree. Also it matters what the Ghestem bid promises -- is it 5/5 or better or 9+ cards? Would a natural 3 bidder hold Q to seven and out, or is it constructive? There are a lot of variables here, and therefore, very possibly, few peers. Tough problem.
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#4 User is offline   wank 

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Posted 2016-November-30, 10:38

i'm guessing from south's 3S bid that 3D is supposed to be a strong spade raise (good agreement), but then south should be investigating slam, so even though he bid spades, not hearts, he's still used the UI.
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#5 User is offline   mycroft 

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Posted 2016-November-30, 11:40

If 3 after a happy explanation of 2NT as "both majors" is, in fact, "strong spade raise", doesn't 3 show extras? Or is it a "game unless you have your usual pile" raise?

I can see me bidding 3 because 3 is a "good spade raise" and I'm cueing, but having that considered "using UI" that partner thought I had diamonds and hearts when they bid 3 and so want to show extra length in hearts. Difficult question - and critical to know what 3 means in South's system to know what the "AI" shows.
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#6 User is offline   VixTD 

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Posted 2016-November-30, 12:26

I'm not sure what I can do to answer your questions, but I'll try.

North and South have occasional games together, but are not a well-established partnership. I would imagine their Ghestem overcalls show 5+/5+, and at least approaching opening strength (say 9+ pts) with good suits.

Like most club partnerships that agree to play Ghestem, they will not have discussed what a response in a new suit would be.

North had asked South afterwards why he had bid spades rather than hearts, and he'd got the reply that it would allow North to bid hearts on the next round, or something like that. (Neither of us could make sense of this.)
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#7 User is offline   billw55 

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Posted 2016-November-30, 13:07

In that case I would adjust to 3-1. South must bid as if 3 was a legitimate call. His explanation for bidding on included nothing about 3 being artificial. Ergo pass is a LA.
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#8 User is offline   sfi 

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Posted 2016-November-30, 13:59

Passing 3D can't be a sensible option with a 4 loser hand. I was expecting that South bid 3S to show a good hand, while 3H would just show they didn't like diamonds. That might have been what South was trying to say, but I would like to look further into why they chose that particular action.
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#9 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2016-December-01, 05:21

I am not convinced that pass by South is an LA but 3 looks like an attempt to wake up North (as 3 might sound like 6-5 in the red suits).

I don't think I would be cruel enough to make North bid 4 if he had not been woken up. After all, 3 by South would tell North they had a heart fit so he would probably pass it.

Score stands but I would have some words with South about the 3 bid. Maybe also a friendly advice to EW about not asking when they don't need to know, but I am not sure about this. Asking about alerted calls has the advantage that you don't give a way information about whether you are interested in the answer or not.
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#10 User is offline   lamford 

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Posted 2016-December-01, 08:40

Firstly 3D would be three off. Cashing two top diamonds and playing four rounds of clubs is the normal start. Now both locking declarer in dummy and uppercutting on the fifth round of clubs lead to three off.

But it looks normal to bid 3H on the South hand. I don't think this pair had any agreement about 3D other than it denied support for the majors. North will pass that, and it also makes nine tricks, so no adjustment. 3S does not seem to take advantage of the UI. By the time it was bid, North had corrected the explanation, so he does not need waking up.
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#11 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2016-December-01, 08:43

View Postlamford, on 2016-December-01, 08:40, said:

3S does not seem to take advantage of the UI. By the time it was bid, North had corrected the explanation, so he does not need waking up.

Ah right, yes. My bad.
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#12 User is offline   billw55 

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Posted 2016-December-01, 08:46

edit: ninja'd by lamford
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#13 User is offline   billw55 

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Posted 2016-December-01, 08:51

View Postlamford, on 2016-December-01, 08:40, said:

But it looks normal to bid 3H on the South hand. I don't think this pair had any agreement about 3D other than it denied support for the majors. North will pass that, and it also makes nine tricks, so no adjustment.


What I have been wondering is, what does north do with a hand such as x x QTxxxxx Txxx. Can he bid 3 to play? Would south still bid 3 if this hand was possible? Maybe. Is maybe good enough?
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#14 User is online   johnu 

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Posted 2016-December-01, 12:52

View Postsfi, on 2016-November-30, 13:59, said:

Passing 3D can't be a sensible option with a 4 loser hand. I was expecting that South bid 3S to show a good hand, while 3H would just show they didn't like diamonds. That might have been what South was trying to say, but I would like to look further into why they chose that particular action.


Why isn't passing 3 sensible when partner may be 2-1 or worse in the majors, in which case your 4 loser hand suddenly has a lot more losers. Why wouldn't 3 just show 6 good spades?
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#15 User is online   johnu 

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Posted 2016-December-01, 13:26

View Postmycroft, on 2016-November-30, 11:40, said:

If 3 after a happy explanation of 2NT as "both majors" is, in fact, "strong spade raise", doesn't 3 show extras? Or is it a "game unless you have your usual pile" raise?


3 showing extras makes no sense unless 2NT is game forcing. If 2NT is not game forcing, how do you sign off?
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#16 User is offline   sfi 

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Posted 2016-December-01, 14:23

View Postjohnu, on 2016-December-01, 12:52, said:

Why isn't passing 3 sensible when partner may be 2-1 or worse in the majors, in which case your 4 loser hand suddenly has a lot more losers.


Because partner might actually have something for you despite showing a long diamond suit. And you have a lot more than you might have.

Quote

Why wouldn't 3 just show 6 good spades?


Because you need a call to show a hand like QJTxxx QJTxxx x -, and pass doesn't feel like the right call on this auction.
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#17 User is offline   lamford 

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Posted 2016-December-01, 15:07

View Postbillw55, on 2016-December-01, 08:51, said:

What I have been wondering is, what does north do with a hand such as x x QTxxxxx Txxx. Can he bid 3 to play? Would south still bid 3 if this hand was possible? Maybe. Is maybe good enough?

There was probably no agreement on 3D and "no preference" is common. 3H with six is normal and 3S just odd.
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#18 User is online   johnu 

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Posted 2016-December-01, 16:23

View Postsfi, on 2016-December-01, 14:23, said:

Because partner might actually have something for you despite showing a long diamond suit. And you have a lot more than you might have.


While you have more than a minimum, passing is still a reasonable alternative IMO.



View Postsfi, on 2016-December-01, 14:23, said:

Because you need a call to show a hand like QJTxxx QJTxxx x -, and pass doesn't feel like the right call on this auction.


While it may be sound bidding theory to cater to a 6-6 hand, I would bid 3 with that hand.
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#19 User is offline   cherdano 

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Posted 2016-December-01, 18:08

I don't get this thread. Not only is passing 3 a logical alternative. The only alternative to me would be raising to 4 - I have a GREAT hand for diamonds given the bidding.
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#20 User is offline   Cyberyeti 

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Posted 2016-December-02, 19:19

View Postsfi, on 2016-November-30, 13:59, said:

Passing 3D can't be a sensible option with a 4 loser hand. I was expecting that South bid 3S to show a good hand, while 3H would just show they didn't like diamonds. That might have been what South was trying to say, but I would like to look further into why they chose that particular action.


Why not pass ? x, x, 10xxxxxx, Qxxx would be the sort of thing 3 shows.

3 very much smells of "partner prefers diamonds to hearts, so I'll bid spades".

Also it really shouldn't make, was a trump led or something ?
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