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The UI suggests...

#21 User is offline   barmar 

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Posted 2016-August-29, 08:58

View Postlamford, on 2016-August-28, 17:44, said:

Let us just agree to differ; I will not post on this thread again, as it has become too time-consuming.

Does this mean you've passed the facts on to SB, in case he remembers a similar situation occurring in a certain North London club? :)

#22 User is offline   Zelandakh 

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Posted 2016-August-30, 06:02

View Postmr1303, on 2016-August-28, 10:12, said:

The opponents suggested to the TD at the end of the hand that 4D should be treated as a slam try, as that is usual over a gambling 3nt, and that South (me) should bid 4H as a cue or bid 6D.

I do not really follow the opps' argument. Even if we accept that the same system should apply, which in itself is a stretch, the correct call over 4 in the most common rebid structure is 5 to show club shortage. So by their own logic you did the right thing. A stronger argument from their side might be that partner's 4 call might reasonably be a transfer after a "to play" 3NT overcall. That is the only logic I can see to make a good case against N-S here. After bidding 3NT to play and partner describing the call as "a big balanced hand", would noone consider that possibility even if they played it over 2 - 2; 3NT? The whole Gambling 3NT opening sub-thread looks like a complete red herring to me and essentially irrelevant as far as a ruling goes.
(-: Zel :-)

Happy New Year everyone!
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#23 User is offline   nige1 

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Posted 2016-August-30, 12:27

View Postmr1303, on 2016-August-28, 01:19, said:


Without any specific agreement, you bid 3NT at your first turn to call. You hope that this is to play, although you haven't specifically discussed it. You think 3S would be Western Cue, and a 3NT opening would be gambling (solid minor, no outside stoppers).
Unfortunately, partner alerts your 3NT as unusual, showing both minors. He then bids 4D.
a) What does the UI suggest here? 4C would be P/C over a 3NT opening, but 4D is undiscussed.
b) What do you call now?
Whatever North intends by 4, on any sensible interpretation it is forcing in the context of your hand. If North imagines that your 3N overcall shows a
  • Big balanced hand (e.g. 23+ HCP), then it's likely to be a transfer to .
  • Minor 2-suiter (what North guessed South meant) then it shows diamond preference. which is good news.
  • Solid minor with little outside (Such a gambling overcall would be a peculiar understanding), then 4 is natural or a slam-try and you have extras.
  • A hand playable in 3N (Something like what South actually held) then again 4 is probably a transfer (or perhaps a natural slam-try).
Hence, IMO, Pass is not a logical alternative. Among LAs might be: 4, 4N, 5, 6, 6N. Of these, the least suggested by UI is probably 4 (completing the putative transfer).

Anyway, if you have agreed methods over a natural 3N overcall, then it's easy. You interpret 4, according to those methods and make the appropriate conventional response (ignoring the UI from partner's earlier explanation).
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