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4th suit forcing-to-game? (How is that playable at all?)

#21 User is offline   1eyedjack 

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Posted 2016-August-21, 07:16

If you are not averse to a flexible approach to bidding, you could rebid 1S on a balanced hand without a Club guard, rebid 1N with a balanced hand and Club guard that may have 4 Spades.

Over a 1S rebid, responder would then have a greater onus to hold something in Clubs if venturing NT on his own.
Psych (pron. saik): A gross and deliberate misstatement of honour strength and/or suit length. Expressly permitted under Law 73E but forbidden contrary to that law by Acol club tourneys.

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Masterminding (pron. mPosted ImagesPosted ImagetPosted Imager-mPosted ImagendPosted Imageing) tr. v. - Any bid made by bridge player with which partner disagrees.

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#22 User is offline   dave_beer 

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Posted 2016-August-21, 10:06

With Qxx-AQxxx-Kxx-xx or xxx-AQxx-KQx-xxx I rebid 3 and with Qxx-AQxxx-Kx-xxx I rebid 2
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#23 User is offline   billyjef 

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Posted 2016-August-21, 10:11

Interesting, I was about to say XYZ could be used as a solution to the OP dilemmas...could it be extended to the other 3rd ladder situation? Jef

View Postkenrexford, on 2016-August-20, 12:49, said:

This auction is why you do not bid 1S with all balanced hands if playing 4th suit forcing to game.

If 1S shows real diamonds,you have little problem supporting them.

That said, the ladders should be an exception, IMO. The thrre ladders are

1♧-1♢-1-♡-1♤
1♢-1♡-1♤-2♧
1♡-1♤-2♧-2♢

In each of these ladder auctions I don't think the fourth bed should be absolutely game forcing. But that's a side note.

Jef Pratt
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#24 User is offline   spotlight7 

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Posted 2016-August-21, 11:11

As far as the three ladders go:


After 1C-1D-1H-1S* I prefer that 1S* be DSSP(Do Something Smart Partner)



XYZ auctions start after any three bids by our side other than a pass. Bridge World suggests that pass also count

as a bid in a contested auction. After 1D-p-1H-(1S)-p-p-the 2C* and 2D* meanings of XYZ still apply



After 1D-1H-1S-2C* starts XYZ and forces 2D* by opener. You can now pass when weak with Ds or make any other bid

which standard XYZ defines as invitational hands.



After 1D-1H-1S-2D* starts the game forcing part of XYZ. No one needs to jump later to game force. Shape/stoppers can

be sorted out "without fear of being passed." Bridge World has an expanded XYZ treatment in the August

2016 issue. T-XYZ which may interest serious bridge players that like science in their bidding.



After 1H-1S-2C-2D* XYZ does not apply and you use 4th suit forcing. I prefer 4th suit forcing to be a DSSP bid and not game forcing.


If it is bid at the three level, it is game forcing. A reverse bid that is also 4th suit forcing

can be defined as DSSP.



Placing the contract in the hand of the player that has 'some advantage taking the lead' is high up on my

"good bid partner" type bidding.
.
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#25 User is offline   Kaitlyn S 

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Posted 2016-August-21, 11:21

View Postspotlight7, on 2016-August-21, 11:11, said:

As far as the three ladders go:


After 1C-1D-1H-1S* I prefer that 1S* be DSSP(Do Something Smart Partner)



XYZ auctions start after any three bids by our side other than a pass. Bridge World suggests that pass also count

as a bid in a contested auction. After 1D-p-1H-(1S)-p-p-the 2C* and 2D* meanings of XYZ still apply
I'm a bit behind on my Bridge Worlds. Is this really a part of BWS 2017?



View Postspotlight7, on 2016-August-21, 11:11, said:

After 1D-1H-1S-2C* starts XYZ and forces 2D* by opener. You can now pass when weak with Ds or make any other bid

which standard XYZ defines as invitational hands.

Since opener can have a pretty decent 18 count and not jump shift, it would seem like opener bidding 2D and responder passing would be at most a bad 8. Is this really optimal? Wouldn't it be better for opener to accept the relay only if he was willing to hear partner pass 2D with a mediocre 10-count with diamonds, and make some other bid if he has game aspirations opposite responder's 10-count with diamonds? Opener would be so well defined at that point that responder shouldn't need the relay any more.

View Postspotlight7, on 2016-August-21, 11:11, said:

Placing the contract in the hand of the player that has 'some advantage taking the lead' is high up on my

"good bid partner" type bidding.
.
Mine too. That's why I cringed when I saw so many people bid notrump in this thread without a club stopper. Some of them are going to be my partners in the Main Bridge Club someday.
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#26 User is online   kenberg 

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Posted 2016-August-21, 11:57

http://rpbridge.net/5m81.htm addresses some of this.

I have reviewed the posts here but sometimes I err, so I apologize if this link has already appeared.


I think that one take away from this is that it is hard to address this issue in isolation. RP plays 4th suit as invitational strength, but within a context of other calls.

Also, XYZ has been mentioned. There are some comments about this on
http://bridgewinners...pavlicek/#new_1


I have always thought that the right question is not "Should 4th suit be gf?" but rather "In which sequences should the 4th suit be gf?" As a somewhat casual player, I usually play it as gf in all instances and hope the problem hands don't come up too often. I go through some issues with a partner, but not everything.

I like this topic.
Ken
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#27 User is offline   Stefan_O 

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Posted 2016-August-21, 13:02

I also put up a Poll, here:

http://bridgewinners...orcing-to-game/
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#28 User is offline   aawk 

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Posted 2016-August-21, 13:11

If you play the 4th suit game forcing 2nt is a invite and does not garantee a c stopper that is the price you pay for it being game forcing.

What to bid with the hands you gave us depends on the style of your partner openings bid, if it can be light bid 2nt if not bid the 4th suit.
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#29 User is offline   iandayre 

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Posted 2016-August-21, 17:55

View PostStefan_O, on 2016-August-20, 04:47, said:

OK, thats one way :)

I just get the impression many good players today play 4sf forcing-to-game.
Or is this not correct?


I would say yes. 4SF forcing to game has been quite popular for years, and I get the impression that most new players for the past 25 years or so never learned any other way.
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#30 User is offline   Vampyr 

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Posted 2016-August-21, 18:02

View Postiandayre, on 2016-August-21, 17:55, said:

I would say yes. 4SF forcing to game has been quite popular for years, and I get the impression that most new players for the past 25 years or so never learned any other way.


25 years? I would be very surprised if this were the case.
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#31 User is offline   victorhugo 

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Posted 2016-August-21, 20:24

Stefan,

A lot of people play a convention called XYZ where when three bids have been made, ending in 1NT or not, there is a new structure to show a game forcing hand or simply an invitational hand.

2 forces 2 and a direct 2 is game forcing.

So on your acution:

1 - 1
1 - 2 (beginning of invite sequence or bust)
2 (forced) - 2 Inviting with 3 and denying the stop.
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#32 User is offline   Stefan_O 

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Posted 2016-August-22, 02:59

Yes, XYZ was an interesting outcome of this discussion.
I've been playing XY-NT, but never encountered XYZ before...

It still only covers the cases where opener rebids on the 1-level.
So the issues remain after 2-level rebids, like
1D-1M-2C-?
etc.
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#33 User is online   kenberg 

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Posted 2016-August-22, 06:02

I have played the X-Y-NT, (rather I have played 2-way new minor but as near as I can see it is the same thing). There is a mild cost. After 1C-1S-1NT it is posssible you would like to bid 2C to play and you can't, but this does not seem to really be a problem. When you are that weak and partner is 12-14 the opponents have probably climbed into the auction already or are about to, and you are probably willing to compete to 3C, so I have not found it a problem.

But 1C-1H-1NT is a whole lot different from 1C-1H-1S. In the NT case I know partner is 12-14 balanced, in the 1S case I know much less. Perhaps this makes X-Y-Z even more useful, I am not sure, I haven't tried it.

With 1D-1M-2C problems seem less frequent. I am not sure why, but maybe because 1D-1M-2C-2D is generally pretty open endd. Presumably opener has five diamonds. My 2D call is a willingness to play in diamonds but not necessarily enthusiasm. If partner has non-minimal values he will bid again, maybe showing three card support for M, maybe showing a 2NT bid, maybe 3C showing 5-5. At any rate, I find that if he passes this is usually just fine. He seldom has three card support for M since he has nine cards in the minors but if he does he is apt to show it. If he has only one card in the other major and the opponents are not in the auction he probably has some extra hcps to go with his stiff.
At any rate I have not often found problems with 1D-1M-2C.

Despite the above comments, I am far from sure I am right. These simple auctions do not get the discussion that they deserve, I suppose everyone thinks it is all settled or all clear. For me it is far from either settled or clear.
Ken
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#34 User is offline   jogs 

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Posted 2016-August-22, 18:32

View PostStefan_O, on 2016-August-20, 02:34, said:

If you play 4th suit forcing to game,
after
    1-1
    1-?
what do you bid with invitational hands and no -stopper, like:

Qxx   AQxxx   Kxx   xx
xxx   AQxx   KQx   xxx
Qxx   AQxxx   Kx   xxx

I suspect that 5332 plays nearly one full trick better than 4333.
Qxx   AQxxx   Kxx   xx
This is worth a 2 call.
xxx   AQxx   KQx   xxx
Bid 1NT with this hand. It has a flat pattern and the NT is wrong sided.
Occasionally aggressive opponents reopen and go for -1100.
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#35 User is offline   mycroft 

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Posted 2016-August-23, 11:50

A common agreement is that 4th suit 1 is F1, ostensibly NAT, and 2 is the ART GF. It has been pointed out that that's kind of silly, inverting those bids would be better; I would tend to agree, but have no experience with that. As many have said, I've moved to XYZ, so for us 4th suit 1 is NAT and probably passable (in the "if you pass, it had better be right" kind of way).

Note that there are other discussions here - in particular, "do you bypass a 4cM to rebid 1NT?" If you do, then 1-1; 1 is a warning sign that the opener is likely short in a pointed suit. It's probably diamonds, sure, but do you necessarily want to show 4 spades and stuff knowing what you know about partner's hand (and telling the opponents at the same time)?

As for stoppers (at least for 1NT), stoppers are for your drink - especially minor suit stoppers. If you're going to game, you have time to look for a hole; if you don't, they might lead an unsupported major over the unbid suit anyway; if you're not going to game, then you can afford to lose 5 clubs and still beat 2-of-whatever (and, if it's a fit, are you sure you're going to get to *play* 2-of-whatever? When they have a club fit and see you settle in?)
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#36 User is offline   jogs 

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Posted 2016-August-23, 17:22

View Postmycroft, on 2016-August-23, 11:50, said:

A common agreement is that 4th suit 1 is F1, ostensibly NAT, and 2 is the ART GF.

A better agreement is 1 is natural and ostensibly forcing. If pd decides to pass, it's probably right.
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#37 User is offline   Stefan_O 

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Posted 2016-August-24, 05:34

"ostensibly NAT" = At least 3-card?

"ostensibly forcing" = Almost forcing? (Unless pd is like sub-minimum?)

Or what?
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#38 User is offline   mycroft 

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Posted 2016-August-24, 14:42

"It shows spades. That is what he promises, but he doesn't have to have it. It is forcing. That's what I promise, but again, I may not. If we don't have/do what we promise, we had better be right."

In other words, there's going to be the odd hand where showing 4 spades is the best call after 1-1; 1 even though the hand doesn't have 4 spades; there are going to be hands where this "unlimited, therefore forcing" bid gets passed. They should number in the countable (without requiring the wearing of sandals, probably).
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#39 User is offline   Kaitlyn S 

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Posted 2016-August-24, 14:51

View Postmycroft, on 2016-August-24, 14:42, said:

"It shows spades. That is what he promises, but he doesn't have to have it. It is forcing. That's what I promise, but again, I may not. If we don't have/do what we promise, we had better be right."

In other words, there's going to be the odd hand where showing 4 spades is the best call after 1-1; 1 even though the hand doesn't have 4 spades; there are going to be hands where this "unlimited, therefore forcing" bid gets passed. They should number in the countable (without requiring the wearing of sandals, probably).
Forcing is forcing. In my favorite partnership the following auctions are all possible:
1C-1D-1H-1S-1NT-6NT, 1C-1D-1H-1S-2S-6S, and 1C-1D-1H-1S-3S-7S (possibly with RKCB thrown in.)
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#40 User is offline   mycroft 

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Posted 2016-August-24, 15:17

Yes, and "ostensibly forcing" is ostensibly, but not absolutely, forcing. I agree with you that that auction, for me, is 100% forcing (but might not have 4 spades if there's no other bid that counts) - see my first comment. Jogs suggested reversing what was required and what was fudgeable. Fine, it's workable (especially with XYZ). I was just answering Stefan's question of what "ostensibly" means in context.

You want to play it 100% forcing? More power to you. You will run up against the rare hand where it plays badly, which you will chalk up to a system loss, and get your wins back in those slam auctions. Jogs will win on other hands. I will win on yet others.

Partnerships where one can not say "yep, I took a view, where it's 100% my fault if it was wrong, no matter how bad your bidding was; it was wrong; it's 100% my fault. Next hand?" are, to me, not long for this world. Partnerships that don't realize that there is no system that doesn't have unbiddable hands, or hands where you're behind off the top and there's nothing you can do about it, are also not long for this world.

That's why I love this game.
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